Amity University-Noida BA Admissions 2026
Among top 100 Universities Globally in the Times Higher Education (THE) Interdisciplinary Science Rankings 2026
CUET English Question Paper 2026: The National Testing Agency (NTA) has successfully wrapped up the CUET UG 2026 examination, which was held from May 11 to May 31, 2026. Now that the exams are done candidates can check the detailed shift wise CUET 2026 exam analysis on this page. The CUET 2026 exam analysis covers the overall difficulty level of the paper, important areas that showed up, the question pattern and also what students felt in different shifts.
This Story also Contains
From student responses and expert review, the overall difficulty for the CUET UG 2026 English paper seemed moderate, with a fairly steady combination of reading comprehension, vocabulary, grammar, and verbal ability questions. We have also put up a different analysis for each shift so students can get a clear idea of this year’s paper pattern and question trends, not just the big picture. The CUET 2026 English question paper itself, plus memory based questions and detailed solutions, will be uploaded here soon. Candidates can go through the complete shift wise breakdown to spot the paper pattern and compare the difficulty level across the various exam days, in a more organized way.
Candidates looking for detailed Exam Analysis can download: English CUET 2026 Exam Analysis and Memory-Based Questions
| Date | Shift 1 Analysis | Shift 2 Analysis |
|---|---|---|
| 11 May | Very Easy - vocabulary-heavy; easy RC; direct grammar; scoring paper | Easy to Moderate - grammar-heavy; vocabulary important; manageable overall |
| 12 May | Easy to Moderate - grammar dominant; manageable RC; moderate vocab | Easy to Moderate - balanced paper; narrative RC; rearrangement easy |
| 13 May | Moderate to Difficult - lengthy paper; tough vocabulary; difficult time management | Easy to Moderate - direct questions; grammar + vocabulary focused |
| 14 May | Moderate to Moderately Difficult - vocabulary difficult; lengthy RC | Easy to Moderate - manageable; para jumbles and RC easy |
| 15 May | Easy to Moderate - grammar-heavy and scoring | - |
| 18 May | Moderate - high vocabulary weightage; tricky idioms | Moderate - RC lengthy; grammar and vocab easier than RC |
| 19 May | Easy to Moderate - RC manageable; vocabulary important | Moderate - vocab slightly tricky; one RC difficult |
| 20 May | Easy to Moderate - grammar highest weightage; RC easy | Easy to Moderate - balanced paper; RC + fillers dominated |
| 21 May | Easy to Moderate - sentence rearrangement and phrasal verbs important | Moderate - vocabulary tougher; idioms difficult |
| 22 May | Easy to Moderate - elimination-based; grammar + vocab mixed | Easy - highly scoring; vocabulary and para jumbles dominant |
| 23 May | - | Easy to Moderate - easy RC; strong vocabulary focus |
| 26 May | Easy to Moderate - balanced grammar, RC, vocab paper | - |
| Parameter | Observation |
|---|---|
| Easiest Shift | 11 May Shift 1 |
| Toughest Shift | 13 May Shift 1 |
| Most Vocabulary-Heavy | 14 May Shift 1, 18 May Shift 1, 21 May Shift 2 |
| Most Grammar-Heavy | 12 May Shift 1, 15 May Shift 1, 20 May Shift 1 |
| Most RC-Difficult | 14 May Shift 1, 18 May Shift 2 |
| Most Scoring Shift | 11 May Shift 1, 22 May Shift 2 |
Get expert advice on college selection, admission chances, and career path in a personalized counselling session.
Below is the detailed analysis of the CUET English 2026 Question Paper.
The English paper was moderately difficult to difficult overall.
The Vocabulary section was the toughest part of the exam.
Several advanced words were asked, including:
Sporadic
Cajole
Dilettante (as recalled)
Around 5–6 questions were based on idioms and phrases.
Some idioms asked were:
Banana Republic
Dark Horse
As Clear as Mud
The Reading Comprehension passages were easy to moderate, but the questions were lengthy and sometimes tricky.
Questions on Literary Devices were asked, including:
Hyperbole
Onomatopoeia
Oxymoron
Active and Passive Voice questions were included.
A few questions tested spelling errors.
No foreign word questions were asked.
The Grammar section was relatively easy.
The paper felt difficult mainly because of the heavy emphasis on vocabulary and idioms.
Overall Analysis
Vocabulary-focused paper.
Grammar and comprehension were manageable.
Students with a strong vocabulary background had an advantage.
Expected difficulty level: Moderate to Difficult.
The overall English paper was easy to moderate in difficulty level.
Most questions were straightforward, but a few required careful reading, especially in comprehension.
Around 3-4 vocabulary-based questions were asked, including synonyms and antonyms.
4 One Word Substitution questions appeared in a match the following format.
There were 2 Reading Comprehension passages in the paper.
One RC passage was relatively tricky and slightly time-consuming, while the other was manageable.
Questions from Passive Voice and Indirect Speech (Reported Speech) were included.
Around 3-4 Para Jumble questions were asked.
A few Fill in the Blanks questions were included based on grammar and usage.
Around 2-3 Match the Following questions were also asked from language usage/vocabulary.
Questions based on Idioms and Phrases were part of the paper as well.
The paper had a good mix of grammar, vocabulary, comprehension, and verbal ability topics.
Students with regular practice in RC, vocabulary, and grammar could attempt the paper comfortably.
Vocabulary had good weightage with questions on synonyms and antonyms.
Words asked included Precocious, Salubrious, Expedite, Impede, and Augmented.
Grammar questions were asked from Voice Change, Subject-Verb Agreement, and sentence usage.
Reading Comprehension passages were mostly direct and manageable.
Some students found a few RC options slightly confusing or close in meaning.
Vocabulary and grammar-based questions were straightforward for well-prepared students.
Overall, English remained one of the most scoring sections of the paper.
Overall, the paper was easy, but not extremely easy, due to a few tricky RC and language-based questions.
The overall English paper was easy to moderate and manageable for most students.
Reading Comprehension passages were very easy, with mostly direct and factual questions.
Two RC passages were asked in the paper.
One passage was story-based, while the other focused on technology, including its benefits and side effects.
Most RC questions were direct and did not require deep interpretation.
Vocabulary had a strong weightage in the paper.
Questions were asked from words like “eloquent”, “candid”, “loquacious”, “verbose”, etc.
Vocabulary questions were mostly straightforward, though 1-2 were slightly tricky.
Synonyms and antonyms appeared mainly in matching format.
Homophones-based question was also asked, including words like “site” and “sight”.
One Word Substitution questions were included in the paper.
A stamp collector-related vocabulary question appeared, likely based on “Philatelist”.
Idioms and phrases questions were simple and familiar.
Common idioms asked included:
“Spill the beans”
“Bury the hatchet”
“Hit the sack”
Phrasal Verbs had around 2 matching-type questions.
“Put” based phrasal verb questions were also discussed by students.
Figure of Speech section included around 3 matching questions.
Questions included concepts like:
Metaphor
Metonymy
Personification
Around 3 questions were asked collectively from:
Active-Passive Voice
Narration
Basic Grammar usage
Narration had nearly 2 questions.
Voice section had around 1-2 questions.
Questions from Tenses, Prepositions, Fillers, Conjunctions, and Conditionals were also included.
Preposition section had around 2 questions.
Fillers and application-based grammar questions were easy to solve.
Rearrangement/Para Jumbles were mostly easy.
One rearrangement question was slightly confusing and time-consuming.
Logical pair and elimination methods worked effectively in Para Jumbles.
Grammar portion was largely application-based but not confusing.
Spelling Error question was also included in the paper.
Most questions were direct and required basic conceptual clarity rather than deep analysis.
Matching-type questions had significant weightage throughout the paper.
Students who revised memory-based vocabulary found multiple repeated words and concepts.
Elimination technique helped students solve many vocabulary and matching questions quickly.
Students with good command over vocabulary and grammar could complete the paper comfortably within time.
Overall, the paper was scoring and easier compared to many previous English shifts.
The overall English paper was mostly easy with a strong emphasis on vocabulary and grammar usage.
Reading Comprehension passages were straightforward and easy to understand.
One RC passage was based on Digital Media Consumption, while another was a story extract featuring characters named Jo and Meg.
Students reported that RC questions were direct and not very inference-heavy.
Unseen passage was placed at the end of the paper, and students suggested solving it first before attempting other sections.
Heavy focus was observed on Phrasal Verbs and Para Jumbles, with around 4-5 jumbled sentence questions in some sets.
Match the Following questions included topics related to Prepositions, Conjunctions, and Word Meanings.
Vocabulary section had approximately 4-5 questions and was largely easy except for one slightly difficult word-based question.
One Word Substitution was an important area with around 2-3 questions asked.
Idioms and Phrases also had noticeable weightage with nearly 2-3 questions.
Two questions based on Spelling Errors were reported in the shift.
Only one Error Identification question was asked, making grammar comparatively less dominant than vocabulary.
Antonyms were reportedly not asked in this paper.
Students advised aspirants to focus on vocabulary, idioms, one-word substitutions, and understanding noun-verb usage carefully while reading questions.
Overall, the English paper was considered highly scoring for students with strong command over vocabulary and sentence structure.
The paper was easy to moderate
Many questions could be solved using the elimination method
Synonym and Antonym Match the Following questions were asked
Around 4 questions from Reading Comprehension were asked
Rearrangement questions were asked
Grammar questions on Adjectives such as “some” and “any” were asked
Questions on Speech, Voice, and Prepositions were asked
Vocabulary questions on Synonyms, Antonyms, and Idioms were asked
Questions on Verbs and Spelling Errors were asked
Vocabulary section was tough
Paper was moderate
Words asked:
Impeccable
Salubrious
Vindicate
Literary devices asked:
Pun
Personification
Oxymoron
Para jumbles were easy
Around 6 questions came from para jumbles
Grammar questions were from:
Tenses
Adverbs
Adjectives
Idioms section was difficult
Around 4-5 idiom questions were asked
Reading passages tested understanding skills
Spelling questions asked:
Quorum
Miscellaneous
Passage-based questions were both tough and easy
Around 6-7 Sentence Rearrangement questions were asked
Around 3-4 questions from Idioms were asked, including one Odd One Out question
Around 9-10 Synonyms and Antonyms questions were asked
Vocabulary words included Fragrance, Radiant, Dim, and Deliberate
Fill in the Blanks questions were asked from Articles, Homophones, Tenses, and Subject-Verb Agreement
“As well as” based Subject-Verb Agreement question was repeated
Phrasal Verb questions on lay, take, push, pull, and play were asked
Phrasal Verbs and Idioms had significant weightage in this shift
English paper was reported to be easy to moderate in overall difficulty level.
The paper mainly focused on Reading Comprehension, Vocabulary, Grammar, and Figures of Speech.
Around 8 questions were asked from Reading Comprehension passages.
RC passages were mostly story-based and easy to understand.
Questions in RC tested inference, vocabulary usage, tone, and contextual meaning.
Most comprehension questions were direct and manageable with proper reading speed.
Vocabulary section had a noticeable weightage in the paper.
Questions from Figures of Speech were directly asked.
Literary devices like Metaphor and Oxymoron were specifically mentioned in the analysis.
Students had to identify correct literary devices based on sentence usage.
Synonym-based vocabulary questions were also included.
Words and meanings such as “Rebuke → Reprimand” and “Offspring → Child” were discussed.
Contextual vocabulary understanding played an important role in solving word meaning questions.
Around 10 filler-based grammar questions were reportedly asked.
Preposition-based questions formed an important part of the grammar section.
Sentence completion and contextual grammar usage were tested.
Voice-related grammar concepts were also included.
Most grammar questions were rule-based and straightforward.
Error detection and sentence correction concepts were indirectly involved in some questions.
The paper focused more on practical grammar application instead of difficult theoretical grammar rules.
Students with regular practice of mock tests, PYQs, and vocabulary revision found the paper comfortable.
Time management remained easy because passages and grammar questions were not excessively lengthy.
Overall English paper was considered balanced, scoring, and NCERT plus practice-oriented.
Overall paper was easy to moderate.
Most students found the paper scoring and manageable.
Grammar had the highest weightage.
Error detection questions were the trickiest part.
Questions came from:
Articles
Basic Grammar Rules
Sentence Usage
Rearrangement
Fill in the blanks
Phrasal Verbs
Connector-based fill in the blank question was asked:
“He was a topper, ___ he worked hard.”
Options included:
Nevertheless
Moreover
However
Phrasal verb question based on “Pull” was asked.
Options in phrasal verbs were slightly confusing.
Vocabulary section was easy.
Reported vocabulary words:
Cannibal
Rescind
Offspring
One antonym question was also asked.
Idioms questions were unfamiliar but manageable through options.
Spelling questions included:
Mischievous
Entrepreneur
Reading Comprehension (RC) was very easy.
Rearrangement questions:
Around 5-6 questions
2-3 were tricky
Many students attempted around 40 questions comfortably.
Key Takeaways
Grammar preparation was most important.
Phrasal verbs continue to repeat in CUET.
Vocabulary weightage was low.
RC was easy and less time-consuming.
Overall paper was easy and scoring.
Overall Difficulty Level
The English paper was moderate in difficulty.
Grammar section remained easy and predictable.
Vocabulary was slightly tricky compared to previous shifts.
Reading Comprehension included one easy passage and one comparatively difficult passage.
Most students found the paper manageable with proper grammar preparation.
Vocabulary Analysis
Around 10-11 vocabulary questions appeared in total.
Questions were asked through:
Synonyms and Antonyms
Match the Following
Fill in the Blanks
Spellings
Important vocabulary words reported:
Ostensive
Septic
Incorrigible
Tumultuous
Advertently
Levity
Conundrum
Carcass
Polyglot
Taciturn
Diffidence
Spellings-based questions were also included.
Grammar Topics Asked
Active and Passive Voice
Direct and Indirect Speech
Narration
Sentence Rearrangement
Error Detection
Basic Grammar Usage
Idioms and Phrasal Verbs
2-4 idiom-based questions appeared.
Important idioms included:
Halcyon Days
Herculean Task
Flash in the Pan
Wild Goose Chase
Burn the Candle
Phrasal verbs were asked from:
Give
Take
Put
Let
Reading Comprehension
One RC passage was direct and easy.
One passage was comparatively analytical and tricky.
Most answers were inference-based but manageable.
Key Highlights
Grammar carried significant weightage again.
Vocabulary was less repetitive and slightly more advanced.
Students with strong grammar fundamentals and regular vocabulary practice could attempt the paper comfortably.
English section was easy to moderate
Mostly based on:
Reading Comprehension
Vocabulary
Grammar
Sentence Arrangement
Idioms & Phrases
Reading Comprehension:
2 passages
Around 5 questions each
Topics:
Benefits of nature
Crossing a stream/adventure-based passage
Questions were mostly:
Main idea
Vocabulary in context
Inference based
Vocabulary questions:
Correct spelling of Evanescence
Synonyms:
Osteoporosis
Conundrum
Word meaning:
Polyglot
Sentence usage:
Incorrigible
Petrology
Grammar topics:
Indirect speech
Grammatical correction
Rearrangement of sentences
Idioms & Phrases:
Around 3 questions
Antonyms:
Around 3 questions
Phrasal verbs:
Around 3 questions
Figure of Speech:
Around 2 questions
Important word meanings:
Polyglot = a person who knows many languages
Incorrigible = impossible to correct or improve
Petrology = study of rocks
Overall observation:
Vocabulary was important
Grammar was basic
RC passages were manageable
Students with regular newspaper reading and mock practice could perform well
Difficulty level:
Reading Comprehension → Moderate
Vocabulary → Moderate
Grammar → Easy
Overall English section → Easy to Moderate
Moderate English Paper with Strong Focus on RC, Vocabulary, and Grammar
The overall difficulty level of the English paper was reported as Moderate.
Reading Comprehension was the most time-consuming section.
Vocabulary and Grammar had significant weightage in the paper.
Most questions were direct and based on basic language understanding.
Students with regular practice of RCs and vocabulary found the paper manageable.
Time management played an important role because of lengthy comprehension passages.
Reading Comprehension Analysis
Around 2 Reading Comprehension passages were asked.
One RC was based on:
Grandmother and Grandson theme
Another RC was based on:
Story of a Dentist
RC passages were slightly lengthy and time-consuming.
Most comprehension questions were directly answerable from the passage.
Vocabulary-in-context questions were also included in RCs.
Overall RC level was moderate.
Vocabulary Analysis
Vocabulary section was easy to moderate.
Questions were asked from:
Synonyms
Antonyms
Idioms
One-word vocabulary
Fillers-based vocabulary questions appeared in the paper.
Students with good word knowledge found this section scoring.
Grammar Analysis
Grammar section had direct application-based questions.
Questions were asked from:
Phrasal Verbs
Collocations
Sentence Usage
Basic Grammar Rules
Phrasal verbs asked in the paper included:
Break Off
Break Into
Blow Up
Blow In
Call Off
Call On
Collocation-based questions included phrases like:
Fast Food
Take a Rest
Grammar questions were mostly straightforward without complex sentence structures.
Important English Topics Asked
Reading Comprehension
Synonyms and Antonyms
Idioms
Fillers
Phrasal Verbs
Collocations
Vocabulary Usage
Grammar Rules
Student Reaction
Most students found the English paper moderate overall.
RC passages consumed the maximum time.
The Vocabulary and Grammar sections were comparatively easier.
Phrasal verbs and collocations were important scoring areas.
Students with strong reading habits and mock practice found the paper comfortable.
Overall, the paper was considered balanced and scoring for well-prepared candidates.
Overall paper level: Moderate
Vocabulary had a very high weightage
Reading Comprehension was mostly easy
One RC passage was confusing and vocabulary-heavy
Prepositions were important
2 questions from Subject-Verb Agreement
1 question from Active-Passive Voice
1 question from Reported Speech
Questions on correct word placement in sentences
Match the Following questions were elimination-based
2 questions from Figures of Speech
Figure of Speech topics included Enjambment
Idioms section was tricky
Vocabulary Words Asked
Cortege
Corpulent
Emaciated
Adroit
Brevity
Verbose
Fastidious
Infallible
Expedient
Surly
Word Usage Question
Credulous
Credibility
Credible
Idioms Asked
Eke out
Hobson’s choice
At sixes and sevens
Fabian policy
White elephant
Overall difficulty level was easy to moderate
Most students found the paper scoring and manageable
Grammar section had comparatively higher weightage
Reading comprehension passages were easy and direct
Rearrangement questions were very easy
Many students felt the shift may get normalised slightly higher
Reading Comprehension (RC)
Total 2 passages
One passage was based on cricket
One passage was a story about grandmother and granddaughter
Questions were direct and easy to understand
RCs could be solved quickly with basic comprehension skills
Vocabulary Section
Around 3-5 vocabulary questions
Included:
1-2 Match the Following
1 Phrasal Verb
2 Antonyms
1-2 Synonyms
Vocabulary Words Recalled
Innocuous
Vindicative
Asperse
Coward
Umbrage
Stoic
Grammar Section
Grammar was slightly dominant in the paper
Topics included:
1-2 Preposition questions
1-2 Error Detection
3-4 Rearrangement / Para-jumbles
2 Spelling Correction
Other Questions
1 One Word Substitution
A question related to “No. of ships”
Student Reactions
“RCs were very easy”
“Rearrangement was easy”
“Grammar heavy paper”
“Spelling words were uncommon”
“Paper can be cleared easily with good preparation”
Overall Conclusion
The paper was balanced and student-friendly
Most questions were straightforward
Students with regular practice in grammar and RC could attempt the paper comfortably within time
Good attempt and accuracy may lead to high scores in this shift
The overall difficulty level of the English paper was easy to moderate.
Two Reading Comprehensions with around 10 questions were asked and were considered easy.
Around 4-5 Para Jumbles questions were asked and were mostly easy to attempt.
Around 3-4 Sentence Completion questions appeared in the paper.
Around 4-5 Vocabulary-based questions were asked and were slightly difficult.
Around 3 Idioms questions were asked in Match the Following format.
Around 4-5 Fill in the Blanks questions were included.
In the Grammar section, around 2 questions from Active and Passive Voice were asked.
One question from Parts of Speech was asked.
Around 2 questions from Reported Speech were included.
Around 2 questions from Tenses were asked.
Around 3 questions from Phrasal Verbs appeared in the paper.
Around 2 questions from Figures of Speech were also asked.
Most students found the paper manageable with good reading speed and basic grammar preparation.
Vocabulary and idiom-based questions required careful understanding of meanings and usage.
Students with regular practice of comprehension passages and grammar exercises found the paper scoring.
Overall paper difficulty was moderate to moderately difficult.
Vocabulary was the most dominant and difficult part of the section.
Reading Comprehension passages were lengthy and inference-based.
RC passages were time-consuming for many students.
Grammar questions were manageable but mixed with difficult vocabulary.
Questions were asked from:
Synonyms
Antonyms
Word Usage
Idioms & Phrases
Phrasal Verbs
Narration
Voice Change
Figure of Speech
Reading Comprehension themes included:
Poetry
Wildlife
Colonial Exploitation
Subjective Interpretation
Vocabulary-based words recalled by students:
Incandescent
Inveterate
Assiduous
Vacillate
Parsimonious vs Prodigal
Idioms asked included:
Chip on One’s Shoulder
Pink Slip
Figure of Speech question on Transferred Epithet was asked.
RC questions focused more on interpretation than direct answers.
Students reported the section was slower than mock tests.
Strong vocabulary and reading habits helped students perform better.
Expected good attempts were around 38-44.
The overall difficulty level of the paper was easy to moderate.
Most questions were direct and based on familiar exam patterns.
Sentence Rearrangement questions were asked in good numbers, with around 5-6 questions appearing in the paper. These were considered easy by students.
Around 5-6 Vocabulary-based questions were included.
A synonym-based question on the phrase “dearth of” was asked.
Questions on Voice and Narration were included in the grammar section.
Approximately 5-6 Grammar questions were asked overall.
Questions related to Prepositions and Choose the Correct Sentence were also included.
Around 6-7 questions were asked from Idioms and Phrases.
One to two questions on One Word Substitution appeared in the exam.
Reading Comprehension passages were included and were manageable for most students.
Overall Paper Pattern
The paper focused mainly on grammar, vocabulary, and comprehension skills.
Most questions were application-based rather than analytical.
Students familiar with previous CUET English patterns and regular grammar practice were likely to find the paper manageable.
Time management was relatively easy due to the straightforward nature of the questions.
The paper was moderate to difficult
The paper was lengthy with tough vocabulary but easy grammar
Time management was difficult
Phrasal Verb questions were tough
The Reading Comprehension passages were small, but the options were too lengthy
One passage was about Artificial Intelligence on Ava/Anant
One passage was based on Bundi Rajasthan Painting
There were two Reading Comprehension passages
Figure of Speech question was asked in the Reading Comprehension
One to two questions from Active and Passive Voice were asked
One to two questions from Narration were asked
Figure of Speech questions on Metonym, Simile, Metaphor, and Personification were asked
Vocabulary-based Fill in the Blank questions were asked
Idiom question on “Waterloo” was asked
Four to five Rearrangement questions were asked and the options were confusing
Question on Adjectives such as few, less, and lesser was asked
Question on Determiners was asked
Question on Plutocracy was asked
Question on Tea: sip/gulp/slip was asked
Question on Tense such as “My dog died years ago” was asked
Phrasal Verb questions on look, call, and drop were asked
No question from Preposition was asked
One question from Articles was asked
Synonym questions on diligent and unsympathetic were asked
Question on Homophones such as beer, bear, and bore was asked
Question from Poetry Extract was asked where Figure of Speech was teste
The overall paper difficulty level was easy to moderate
The English question paper was available around 3-4 PM
Two Reading Comprehension passages were asked
Both passages were narrative-based
Each passage contained 5 questions
Reading Comprehension included both direct and indirect questions
Around 4-5 rearrangement questions were asked
Rearrangement questions were mostly easy
Vocabulary-based questions included meanings, antonyms, synonyms, and one-word substitutions
Words asked included: vague, obstinate, amicable, miser, thrifty, neophyte, novice, outsource, and aviary
Grammar questions were asked from narration and active-passive voice
Questions on prepositions such as from, of, for, and in were included
Questions from adjectives were asked
Figure of speech questions included pun, antithesis, simile, and personification
Idioms asked included pink slip, black and blue, and pale and yellow face
One spelling correction question was based on the word entrepreneur
One tense-based grammar question was included
Phrasal verb questions were asked from get and let
Most questions were manageable for students with regular grammar and vocabulary practice
The English paper was overall easy to moderate, with strong emphasis on Grammar, Reading Comprehension, Vocabulary, and Verbal Ability. Most questions were direct and manageable for students with regular NCERT-level preparation and reading practice.
Overall Difficulty Level
| Section | Difficulty Level |
|---|---|
| Reading Comprehension | Easy to Moderate |
| Vocabulary | Moderate |
| Grammar | Moderate |
| Rearrangement | Easy |
| Overall Paper | Easy to Moderate |
Reading Comprehension (RC) Analysis
Vocabulary & Verbal Ability Analysis
| Topic | Questions Asked |
|---|---|
| Phrasal Verbs | Multiple Questions |
| Figures of Speech | Around 2-3 Questions |
| Rearrangement / Para Jumbles | Around 4-5 Questions |
| Spelling Error | 1 Question |
| Phobia-based Vocabulary | Asked |
Poetic Devices / Figures of Speech
Grammar Analysis
| Topic | Questions Asked |
|---|---|
| Future Tense | Asked |
| Past Tense | Asked |
| Preposition | 1 Question |
Phobia-related Questions Asked
Reported phobia-based terms included:
Student Reaction
Overall paper difficulty was easy to moderate
Vocabulary section had high weightage
Grammar questions were easy and manageable
Paper showed more focus on grammar compared to previous expectations
2 Reading Comprehension passages were asked
Both RCs were easy
Around 5 questions were asked from each RC
Vocabulary level was moderate to difficult for some students
Literary terms and figures of speech were important in this shift
Prepositions and conjunction questions were asked
Narration question was asked
Phrasal verbs received noticeable weightage
Vocabulary Words Asked
Impudent
Acrimonious
Gratis
Profligate
Regalia
Imperious
Condominium
Inadvertently
Disconcerting
Grotesque
Phrasal Verbs Asked
Stand by
Cut off
Cut out
Cut in
Figures of Speech Asked
Alliteration
Metaphor
Oxymoron
Transferred Epithet
Aristotle-based figure of speech question was also reported
Student Reactions
Most students found the paper manageable
Grammar preparation proved very important
Students who practised grammar regularly found the shift easier
Some students felt normalisation may slightly affect this shift due to easier level
The history section in GT was also reported to be easy by some students
NCERT-based preparation remained helpful
Overall reactions from students were positive
Good scoring opportunity for well-prepared candidates
The overall paper level was very easy
The grammar section was easy and direct
Vocabulary had high weightage
2 Reading Comprehensions (RCs) were asked
Both passages were simple and easy to understand
One RC was narrative-based
One RC was a factual passage-based
Wildlife sanctuary-related topic appeared in factual RC
Vocabulary-based questions were dominant in RCs
Underlined-word meaning questions were asked in both passages
Some underlined-word questions felt out of context
The antonym of “ostentatious” was asked
The antonym of “brittle” was asked
Vocabulary words like “motify” and “tumultuous” were asked
The figure of speech questions appeared unexpectedly
Match the following included:
Simile
Metaphor
Epigram
Phrasal verbs from “cut” and “break” were askedAn
Active and Passive Voice question was asked
Narration (Direct-Indirect Speech) question was asked
A preposition-based question was asked
Grammar topics included:
Voice
Narration
Prepositions
RCs were manageable with an easy comprehension level
Students found the paper scoring to be less time-consuming
Vocabulary preparation was important for this shift
Overall attemptability was high, and the paper was student-friendly
Students can check and download the CUET UG 2026 Exam Analysis PDFs for different subjects from the table below. These PDFs and e-books are prepared only for exam analysis purposes using memory-based questions, student reactions, and expert analysis.
| CUET UG Subjects | Exam Analysis and Memory-Based Questions PDF |
|---|---|
| CUET UG 2026 Subject-wise Exam Analysis and Memory-Based Questions | Download Now |
CUET UG 2026 Science Memory-Based Questions and Analysis (Physics, Chemistry & Biology) | |
CUET UG 2026 Commerce Memory-Based Questions and Analysis (Economics, Business Studies, Accountancy) | |
CUET UG 2026 Social Studies Memory-Based Questions, Analysis (Pol Science, History, Geography) | |
CUET UG 2026 General Aptitude Test (GAT) Memory-Based Questions and Analysis | |
CUET UG 2026 Maths Memory-Based Questions and Analysis |
Also check:
Referring to the CUET English Question Paper with Solutions PDF helps aspirants analyse the paper in detail and understand standard solution approaches. This PDF will be updated soon.
Subject | Download Link |
CUET English Question Paper with Solutions 2026 | To be updated soon |
Q1. Choose the sentence in which the word polyglot has been used correctly.
A. The polyglot terrain surrounding the valley was considered unsuitable for agricultural cultivation due to excessive volcanic residue.
B. Being a remarkable polyglot, the diplomat could converse fluently in Arabic, French, Mandarin, and Spanish during international negotiations.
C. The professor of petrology emphasized that polyglot formations are usually found beneath sedimentary rock structures.
D. Her polyglot attitude toward social criticism made her appear increasingly indifferent and emotionally detached from others.
Q2. Choose the sentence in which the word petrology has been used correctly.
A. Petrology enabled the linguist to identify similarities between ancient European dialects and Indo-Aryan languages.
B. The university introduced an advanced course in petrology focusing on the origin, composition, and structure of igneous rocks.
C. His interest in petrology encouraged him to pursue psychological counselling as a professional career.
D. The historian claimed that petrology played an essential role in the development of medieval political institutions.
Q3. Choose the sentence in which the word incorrigible has been used correctly.
A. Despite repeated suspensions and constant warnings from the authorities, the incorrigible student continued engaging in dishonest practices during examinations.
B. The incorrigible landscape attracted thousands of tourists because of its calm atmosphere and picturesque beauty.
C. Her incorrigible explanation of the economic policy was praised for its remarkable precision and analytical depth.
D. The scientist developed an incorrigible theory capable of explaining the complexities of interstellar motion.
Q4. Choose the antonym of levity.
A. A tendency to approach grave circumstances with solemn seriousness and thoughtful restraint rather than casual amusement.
B. A state of overwhelming emotional excitement accompanied by uncontrollable expressions of joy and enthusiasm.
C. An attitude characterized by intellectual confusion and an inability to maintain logical consistency during discussion.
D. A form of exaggerated politeness displayed primarily in highly formal diplomatic interactions.
Q5. Choose the synonym of conundrum.
A. A deeply complicated and confusing problem that appears difficult to resolve through ordinary reasoning.
B. A ceremonial gathering organized to celebrate collective achievements in literature and philosophy.
C. A powerful emotional outburst arising from intense dissatisfaction with political authorities.
D. A methodical scientific observation conducted under strictly controlled laboratory conditions.
Q6. Choose the sentence that best reflects the meaning of taciturn.
A. Although highly knowledgeable, the professor remained taciturn throughout the interview and answered every question in brief, restrained sentences.
B. The taciturn speaker entertained the audience for three hours with endless humorous anecdotes and dramatic expressions.
C. Her taciturn personality encouraged her to participate enthusiastically in every social gathering and cultural event.
D. The manager's taciturn approach involved speaking aggressively and continuously during official meetings.
Q7. Choose the sentence in which the word tumultuous has been used correctly.
A. The nation witnessed a tumultuous political transition marked by protests, uncertainty, and widespread public unrest.
B. The poet described the tranquil lakeside village as tumultuous because of its extraordinary calmness and silence.
C. His tumultuous handwriting was admired for its remarkable neatness and visual clarity.
D. The scientist delivered a tumultuous lecture consisting of concise and carefully structured arguments.
Q8. Choose the option that best explains the idiom Hobson’s choice.
A. A situation in which an individual must select between several equally beneficial opportunities after careful consideration.
B. A circumstance where one appears to have freedom of choice, although in reality only a single option is available.
C. A complex moral dilemma involving conflict between ethical obligations and personal ambition.
D. A condition characterized by uncertainty regarding the consequences of future political decisions.
Q9. Despite the collapse of the family business and increasing financial burdens, they somehow managed to ______ through small temporary jobs and community assistance.
A. preserve their halcyon days through elaborate financial planning and strategic investment opportunities.
B. eke out a living by relying on limited resources and irregular sources of income over several difficult years.
C. break through the economic crisis by establishing multinational commercial partnerships abroad.
D. lay into the administrative authorities for their inability to provide adequate economic support.
Q10. The government's ambitious stadium project eventually turned into a ______ because maintenance expenses far exceeded its practical usefulness.
A. Fabian policy designed to delay difficult political decisions until public criticism gradually disappeared.
B. white elephant that consumed enormous public funds without providing corresponding social or economic benefit.
C. cortege representing the symbolic decline of national administrative authority and economic independence.
D. tumultuous initiative intended to encourage immediate industrial development across neglected rural regions.
Q11. A task demanding extraordinary effort, endurance, and physical or mental strength is commonly described as:
A. Herculean labour undertaken under conditions of severe hardship and relentless difficulty.
B. Fabian labour involving excessive delay and political hesitation during administrative decision-making.
C. Taciturn labour characterized by prolonged silence and limited verbal communication among workers.
D. Verbose labour consisting primarily of unnecessary discussion without productive outcome.
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
No, the CUET 2026 exam may be conducted in multiple shifts, so the question paper can vary slightly, but the overall pattern and difficulty level remain similar.
The CUET 2026 English section generally includes 50 questions, all in MCQ format, out of which all are to be attempted.
Yes, in the CUET 2026 exam, negative marking is applicable, so students should attempt questions carefully.
The CUET 2026 English paper comes under Section IA (Language section) of the exam.
No, while the CUET 2026 English paper is helpful, students should also study the full syllabus, practice mock tests, and revise key topics for better results.
On Question asked by student community
Hello Divyam,
Download CUET UG PCM memory-based papers from the link below and apply filters to access Physics, Chemistry, and Math resources.
https://www.careers360.com/download/cuet-ebooks-and-sample-papers
Hi,
You can check the CUET Tamil previous year question paper with answer key by clicking on the link below.
Hi,
The total marks of CUET UG for each subject is 250 marks. You can check the CUET OBC cut off marks of previous year by clicking on the link below.
Hi,
You can prepare for the CUET exam by going through the study material given below.
Among top 100 Universities Globally in the Times Higher Education (THE) Interdisciplinary Science Rankings 2026
Highest CTC 58 LPA | Avg CTC 11.35 LPA| 150+ Recruiters
Recognized as Category-1 Deemed to be University by UGC | 41,000 + Alumni Imprints Globally | Students from over 20+ countries
40 LPA Highest Package | Up to 100% Scholarship worth 24 Crore via GUTS exam
Last date to Apply: 30th June | NAAC A++ Accredited | NIRF Rank #3
Last Date to Apply: 25th May | QS I-Gauge Diamond Rated | NAAC A+ Accredited | 621 Recruitment Partners | INR 40 LPA Highest CTC | 4482 Job offers