CUET 2025 Question Paper Analysis: Check Subject Wise Detailed Analysis

Aspects

Details

Conducting Body

National Testing Agency (NTA)

Sections

I- Language

II- Domain Specific

III- General Aptitude

Type of Question

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

No. of Questions

50 questions per section

Duration

60 minutes for each subject

Marking Scheme

+5 marks for each correct answer

-1 for each incorrect answer

No marks for each unattempted question

Maximum number of test papers

5 test papers

13th May (Shift 1)

• The CUET 2025 General Test was moderate to tough, with a mix of easy concepts and lengthy questions.
  
  

• Reasoning Ability focused on calendar, alphabet series, number series, mirror images, and seating arrangements, with moderate difficulty.
  
  

• Quantitative Aptitude was easy but lengthy, covering geometry, perimeter, and mensuration, while topics like trigonometry and interest-based questions were absent.
  
  

• General Knowledge (GK) was factual and scoring, with questions on history, important dates, and static GK.
  
  

13th May (Shift 2)

• Current Affairs questions focused on recent 2024 events like elections, Nobel Prizes, and international summits.
  
  

• Static GK covered awards, sports, geography (rivers, national parks), and books & authors, making it factual and scoring.
  
  

• Logical Reasoning included puzzles along with series completion, and seating arrangement, with a moderate to tough difficulty level.
  
  

• Numerical Aptitude was easy, with questions on simplification, ratios, percentages, and averages.
  
  

• Data Interpretation (DI) came in tabular and bar graph formats, being calculation-intensive but manageable.
  
  

• Coding-Decoding and Blood Relations were asked at a moderate difficulty level.
  
  

• Time management was key, as reasoning and GK sections were slightly lengthy.
  
  

14th May (Shift 1)

• Reasoning section had 17-18 questions, with an easy to moderate difficulty level.
  
  

• Key topics included series-based questions (numbers & letters), coding-decoding, blood relations, clock and calendar problems, direction sense, also Venn diagrams, and water images, embedded figures, seating arrangement, and missing number patterns.
  
  

• Figure series questions tested visual reasoning, while topics like analogy, classification, alphabet series, and statement-based reasoning were not asked in this shift.
  
  

• General Knowledge & Current Affairs was of moderate difficulty, covering books & authors (medieval history), chronological events (massacres), classical & folk dance forms, and State List topics from the Indian Constitution.

14th May (Shift 2)

• The CUET 2025 General Test analysis reveals a paper of moderate difficulty, assessing a balanced mix of quantitative aptitude, logical reasoning, and general knowledge skills essential for CUET UG preparation.
  
  

• Quantitative Aptitude questions focused on crucial topics like Percentage, Ratio & Proportion, Profit & Loss, and Simple Interest (SI), emphasizing strong calculation skills and mastery of basic math formulas for CUET 2025 success.
  
  

• The Reasoning Ability section included calendar-based puzzles and mirror image questions, testing students’ date calculation accuracy and visual reasoning abilities, important for logical reasoning practice in CUET exams.
  
  

• The General Knowledge (GK) section primarily featured History-based static GK questions, with minimal emphasis on current affairs, focusing on important historical events and facts relevant for CUET 2025 aspirants.

15th May (Shift 1)

• Quantitative Aptitude: Tough section with tricky numerical and formula-based questions, including mensuration, simple interest, time & work, and speed & distance problems. One lengthy multi-concept question was time-consuming.
  
  

• Logical Reasoning: Easy and straightforward, featuring series, coding-decoding, and simple puzzles that were manageable for well-prepared students.
  
  

• General Knowledge & Current Affairs: Direct and easy questions focused on recent national events, awards, and static GK topics.
  
  

• English Language: Easy to moderate difficulty with a strong focus on vocabulary—synonyms, antonyms, one-word substitutions—and 3-4 reading comprehension passages. No foreign words appeared, simplifying vocabulary questions.
  
  

• Overall, the GAT tested basic to moderate language, reasoning, and quantitative skills, making time management and conceptual clarity crucial.

15th May (Shift 2)

• Very few students appeared for the CUET 2025 General Test (GAT), resulting in limited student feedback and question memory for analysis.

• The GAT paper was unbalanced in terms of section-wise weightage, with Quantitative Aptitude and General Knowledge together covering nearly 40–42 questions, making up the majority of the test.

• Logical and Analytical Reasoning in CUET 2025 GAT had a significantly smaller presence, with only 7-8 questions, surprising many candidates who expected more reasoning-based items.

• Students reported that CUET 2025 General Aptitude Test math questions were conceptually tricky, requiring in-depth understanding rather than formula-based calculations, especially in arithmetic and data interpretation.

• The General Knowledge section included a mix of static GK and current affairs, with a focus on national events, awards, and historical topics—putting unprepared students at a disadvantage.

• Candidates are advised to avoid relying on a fixed GAT paper pattern and prepare thoroughly for Quantitative Aptitude and GK, which are increasingly dominating recent shifts of the CUET UG 2025 exam.

16th May (Shift 1)

• The paper had an easy to medium difficulty level, with Science questions being slightly more challenging.

• Reasoning section included series, coding-decoding, and a complex blood relation puzzle, no questions from Analogy or Classification.

• Direction sense, Venn diagrams, and visual reasoning (Mirror Images, Missing Numbers) were tested.

• GK questions covered static topics and date-based Calendar problems.

• Balanced focus on logical reasoning, general knowledge, and numerical aptitude ensured comprehensive assessment.

16th May (Shift 2)

• The exam was easy to moderate, with direct questions aiding time management.

• General Knowledge focused on static topics like recent awards, important days, and sports events.

• Numerical Ability included basic arithmetic, percentages, ratios, and simplification.

• Logical Reasoning featured common topics: series, coding-decoding, analogy, and blood relations.

• Current Affairs questions covered important events from the last six months, keeping the exam relevant.

19th May (Shift 1)

• Quantitative Aptitude in CUET 2025 GAT was reported as difficult, with questions from topics like compound interest, trigonometry, and other advanced-level math concepts.

• Most students were able to attempt around 40 questions in total, indicating that the overall pace was manageable despite the challenging math section.

• A total of 14 questions were from Mathematics, including application-based and conceptual problems, demanding deeper understanding and practice.

• The Reasoning section had 16 questions, featuring topics like series completion and water image-based visual reasoning, which were moderate in difficulty.

• Current Affairs questions in CUET GAT 2025 included updates like the Hindu Literary Award, Sahitya Akademi Award, and 2024 Olympics medal tally, testing awareness of recent major events.

• Two questions focused on famous books and authors, continuing the trend of literary knowledge being a consistent topic in the GAT exam.

• Geography questions (2 in total) assessed basic factual knowledge, possibly around locations or physical geography concepts.

19th May (Shift 2)

• Overall CUET 2025 General Aptitude Test question paper difficulty level analysis shows the paper ranged from easy to moderate, with well-balanced sections across Logical Reasoning, General Knowledge, and Mathematics.

• CUET 2025 General Knowledge section question pattern focused on factual questions, including current affairs, awards, sports, books, and modern Indian history topics, making it accessible for students with regular preparation.

• CUET 2025 Reasoning section question types and weightage included around 15–16 questions covering Coding-Decoding, Analogy, Classification, Blood Relations, Direction Sense, Calendar logic, and visual reasoning with picture-based and image-series problems.

• CUET 2025 Mathematics section difficulty level and coverage featured around 18–19 questions, making it the lengthiest section; it tested numerical skills and time management under pressure.

• Unique question types in CUET 2025 General Aptitude Test reasoning section included a rare assertion-reasoning question and no presence of Venn Diagram, Syllogism, or Clock-based problems, marking a distinct pattern in this shift.

20 May (Shift 1)

• Overall Difficulty Level: Easy to Moderate

• The paper had an equal distribution of questions across Reasoning, General Knowledge, and Mathematics, with a good overall weightage.

• Around 11–12 questions were asked from Reasoning, and the level ranged from easy to moderate.

• Reasoning included questions from Coding-Decoding, Analogy, Classification, and a simple question on Blood Relations.

• Direction-based reasoning asked for the distance calculation, and one Ranking question was included.

• Conceptual questions were asked from Clock (finding number of 45° angles in 24 hours) and Calendar (based on dates like 3 Jan 2000 and 3 Jan 2001).

• Visual reasoning included one question on Mirror Image, two on Embedded Pictures, and a few on Picture Series and Compilation.

20 May (Shift 2)

• General Knowledge and Current Affairs had very high weightage, with nearly 30 questions from this section.

• A question was asked on the Arya Samaj, including its founder Swami Dayanand Saraswati, the year 1875, and location Bombay.

• Questions included recent historical context like the partition of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.

• Reasoning had a very low weightage, with only 2–5 questions reported.

• Questions included clock angle problems such as the angle formed at 8:40 and other time-based queries.

21 May (Shift 1)

• There was a heavy focus on Defence, National, and International news in the current affairs section.

• Science-based current affairs were frequently asked throughout the paper.

• Questions related to Earth Observation Satellites tested knowledge of launch dates, satellite names, and launch vehicles (e.g., PSLV, GSLV).

• The Nobel Prize in Chemistry was asked in chronological order of winners.

• A specific question was asked about the launch date of the Startup India initiative.

21 May (Shift 2)

• Many students faced time constraints in this section, with several reporting they couldn’t attempt more than 28 out of 50 questions.

• Reasoning and numerical ability appeared to take center stage in the GAT section.

• The proportion of questions from current affairs and general knowledge seemed limited or unclear.

• For many, the overall experience with this section was mixed, with certain parts proving more challenging.

• Students highlighted that better time management would be key to scoring well here.

22 May (Shift 1)

• Level of difficulty was easy to moderate.

• Quantitative Aptitude section had slightly more weightage compared to Reasoning.

• Questions were seen from Profit & Loss, Ratio-Proportion, and Data Interpretation.

• Reasoning section had questions from Series, Coding-Decoding, and Syllogism.

• GK section had around 5–6 questions from Current Affairs, rest from Static GK.

• Polity-based questions focused on Articles, Schedules, and Parts.

• History questions involved Battles, Chronology, and Dynasties.

22 May (Shift 2)

• GAT had approximately 20 questions mainly from General Knowledge.

• Fewer questions (around 30) came from Mathematics and Reasoning.

• Overall level was easy.

Reasoning

• Questions included Letter Series and Coding-Decoding.

• One question each on Classification, Ranking, Embedded Pictures, and Missing Numbers.

• Easy questions from Blood Relations and Direction Sense were present.

• Clock and Calendar questions also appeared.

General Knowledge (GK)

• GK had 11-12 questions with a moderate to difficult level.

• Questions covered Sustainable Development and chronological ordering of events like Home Rule, Dandi March, and Swadeshi Movement.

• Other topics included Kalpana Chawla, the Election Commission, books, awards, and rivers.

23 May (Shift 1)

Quantitative Aptitude (20 Questions)

• The quant section covered basic arithmetic topics like percentage, ratio, and probability.

• Questions on mensuration and geometry were direct and formula-based.

• Number system problems required simple calculations and logical application.

Logical Reasoning (13–14 Questions)

• Series-based questions tested pattern recognition and number logic.

• Coding and decoding questions required attention to alphabetical and numerical patterns.

• A classification question tested the ability to group similar elements.

• The blood relation question was straightforward and easy.

General Knowledge

• GK questions were fact-based and challenging, covering both current and static topics.

• There was a question related to Tata Airlines and its historical or corporate significance.

• A Mysore-related question tested knowledge of regional history or culture.

• One question focused on Ladakh and its border-related geopolitical relevance

24 May (Shift 1)

• The overall difficulty of the GAT section was moderate.

• Current affairs questions were fewer compared to previous shifts or expectations.

• The current affairs questions that appeared were of moderate difficulty.

• There was a significant number of relations-based questions in the section.

• Relations questions tested logical connections, analogies, and verbal reasoning.

• Emphasis on relations questions indicated a shift from pure factual recall to analytical skills.

• Other topics like quantitative aptitude and basic reasoning were present but limited.

• Time management was important due to the moderate difficulty and mix of question types.

• Candidates with a good grasp of logical relations and basic current affairs found this section manageable.

24 May (Shift 2)

• Overall Difficulty Level: Moderate to Difficult, especially due to time management issues. Many students struggled to complete the paper in time.

• Quantitative Aptitude:

  • Heavier weightage in this shift compared to previous ones.

  • LPP (Linear Programming Problem) questions appeared more frequently.

  • Calculation-heavy questions led to increased time consumption.

• Logical Reasoning:

  • Questions from relation-based reasoning were common.

  • Moderate in difficulty; manageable if practiced beforehand.

• General Awareness / Current Affairs:

  • Fewer questions from current affairs.

  • Static GK and indirect logic-based GK questions dominated instead.

26 May (Shift 1)

Quantitative Aptitude

• Paper was Easy to Moderate.

• In Quantitative Aptitude 20-22 were asked.

• 2–3 Questions were difficult

• Questions about mean, median, and mode were asked

Reasoning

• Fewer questions were asked from reasoning and this part was overall easy.

• Question from water image was asked

• Question from mirror image was asked

• Question from ranking was asked

• 2 questions from calendar were asked

General Knowledge

• Approx. 15 questions were asked

• 15 questions from current affairs (very easy) were asked

• Question from book and authors (arrange type) was asked

• Question from medieval city was asked

• Question from geomorphism (endogenic example) was asked

26 May (Shift 2)

• Around 10 general knowledge questions included topics like BSF formation year and Baghdad’s location on the Tigris River.

• A question asked for the full form of BSF (Border Security Force).

• The 38th Parallel between North and South Korea was mentioned in a geography question.

• A question covered Valentina Tereshkova as the first woman in space.

• A science-based question tested knowledge of good nuclear fuels, likely including Uranium and Thorium.

• A historical milestone was covered with a question on India’s first test tube baby, Durga (Kanupriya Agarwal).

27 May (Shift 1)

Overall Assessment

• Level - Moderate-Difficult

• Approximately 10-15 Questions from Quantitative Aptitude

• 10-15 Questions from General Knowledge (Level Moderate)

• 16-18 Questions from Reasoning

Quantitative Aptitude

• Level - Moderate

• NCERT-based questions from all topics with good coverage across the syllabus.

• Mensuration featured cone-related problems, testing solid geometry concepts.

• Tricky questions from Mean, Median, and Mode demanded careful calculation and analysis

Reasoning

• 2-3 Mirror Image questions tested spatial visualization abilities.

• Questions related to missing letters examined alphabetical pattern completion.

• Series questions combined alphabetical and numerical sequences.

• Easy questions from Blood Relations covered basic family relationship mapping.

• Direction-based questions tested spatial orientation and movement tracking

General Knowledge

• Questions related to dance covered Mohiniattam, testing knowledge of classical Indian dance forms.

• Blackout organization names related to global warming tested environmental awareness.

• Questions related to Panipat Battle examined historical knowledge and significant events.

• Alternative famous names of Thailand covered international geography and nomenclature.

27th May
(Shift 2)

• 15–20 general knowledge questions were asked.

• A question related to Mohenjodaro was asked.

• A question was asked about the year of the Hockey Championship.

• One question was asked from Polity.

• A question was asked about which states of India share a border with Bhutan.

• A question related to total internal reflection was asked.

• A book and author-related question was asked.

• A question was asked about the World Health Organization (WHO).

• A question related to international prizes was asked.
  
  Quantitative Aptitude

• One question was asked from heights and distances.

• A question from statistics was asked to find the median.

• One question related to profit and loss was asked.

• Two questions were asked from time and work.

• A question from ratio was asked.

• One question was based on solving a linear equation.

• A question related to the volume or surface area of a cylinder was asked.

• Two questions were asked from probability.

• One question was asked from permutation and combination.

• A question from the number system was asked.

• A question involving a series from arithmetic or geometric progression (AP/GP) was asked.
  
  Logical Reasoning

• One question was asked from seating arrangement.

• Two questions were asked from ranking.

• Two questions were asked from directions.

• A question from coding-decoding was asked.

• A question was asked from blood relations.

• A question based on analogy was asked.

• One question from the calendar was asked.

• One question from the clock was asked.

28th May
(Shift 2)

Reasoning

• Balanced paper with 15–16 questions from each section, paper was easy

• Question from ranking was asked

• Coding-decoding question came

• Question from blood relation was asked

• Direction question was asked

• Three questions from missing number were asked

• Completion of picture question came

• Question from mirror image, clock, calendar was asked

• Picture-based question was asked

• Mostly questions from non-verbal reasoning were asked
  
  

Quantitative Aptitude

• Comparatively easier than 27th May

• Around 11–12 questions came in exam

• Question from probability was asked

• Question from HCF and LCM was asked

• Question from pipe and cistern was asked

• Algebra question came

• Quadratic equation question came

• Ratio question was asked

• Question from heights and distance was asked

• Statistics-based question was asked

• Midpoint formula question was asked

• Mensuration question was asked
  
  General Knowledge

• Paper was easy to moderate

• Around 20 questions came

• Mexico’s first woman PM was asked

• Bhutan doesn't share border with which Indian state was asked

• Goa’s famous river was asked

• Post-Independence book and author question came

• Wavelength theory question was asked

• Question about GST and denomination came

• The paper was well-balanced across all three sections with Reasoning being the easiest and most scoring section for prepared students.

• Non-verbal reasoning was heavily weighted with 4-5 questions from picture-based problems, while logical reasoning had diverse single-question topics covering all major areas.

• Mathematics focused on fundamental arithmetic and geometry with questions on age ratios, SI/CI, time-work, and mensuration being the key scoring areas.

• General Knowledge section had 15-20 questions with good coverage of current affairs, constitutional articles, and science personalities like C.V. Raman.

• The overall difficulty was Easy to Moderate, making it accessible for students with consistent preparation and regular practice.

• Quick-solve questions in reasoning (coding-decoding, blood relations) and mathematics (ratio, SI/CI) provided ample opportunities for securing good marks.

Paper was comparatively tough as compared to other shifts.

In GK:

• Around 15-20 questions came from GK.

• A question was asked on the Missile Woman of India

• Question was asked about Kumarakom, Western Ghats

• Question was asked on the Tyndall Effect
  
  

In Reasoning

• 15 Questions came from Reasoning

• Questions were asked about topics like Blood Relation, Direction, the Missing Numbers, Clock and Coding-Decoding
  
  

In Quant:

• 15 Questions came from Quants

13th May (Shift 1)

• The CUET 2025 English section difficulty was easy to moderate, featuring predictable question types that made it manageable for most aspirants, with an increased focus on vocabulary-based questions like synonyms, antonyms, and phrasal verbs.
  
  

• The Reading Comprehension (RC) passages were simple and straightforward, testing basic reading skills without requiring critical analysis, making this section highly scoring for CUET 2025 candidates.
  
  

• Grammar and language structure questions included fill-in-the-blanks (modals), subject-verb agreement, and sentence rearrangement, adding a mild level of difficulty while assessing practical language use.
  
  

13th May (Shift 2)

• The CUET 2025 English section (13th May Shift 2) had moderate difficulty comprehension passages focused on environment, education, and societal issues, testing reading skills effectively.

• Vocabulary questions on synonyms, antonyms, and contextual usage were moderately challenging, while grammar-based questions on subject-verb agreement, tenses, and error detection remained easy for most aspirants.

• Para-jumbles and sentence rearrangement evaluated logical sequencing and coherence, proving slightly time-consuming; idioms and phrases questions included a few tricky ones, but overall, the section was moderate yet manageable for students with strong reading habits.

14th May (Shift 1)

• The CUET 2025 English paper difficulty was moderate to difficult, with reading comprehension and sentence rearrangement forming the core, contributing to 25-30 questions and requiring strong time management skills.
  
  

• Reading Comprehension (RC) included 4 story-based passages with straightforward questions, while sentence rearrangement carried significant weightage with around 15 questions, making these sections crucial for scoring.
  
  

• Vocabulary questions focused on synonyms, antonyms, idioms, phrasal verbs, and fill-in-the-blanks with advanced words like mellifluous and plagiarism, often in matching-type formats that helped in option elimination.
  
  

• Grammar topics covered adverbs, verbs, and prepositions, mostly in matching formats, and familiarity with NCERT grammar rules and basic vocabulary was key to managing the paper effectively.

14th May (Shift 2)

• The CUET 2025 English section was easy, with 3 Reading Comprehension passages contributing 15 questions.

• Sentence Rearrangement had 12-15 questions, mostly easy with 2-3 challenging ones testing logical flow.

• Grammar questions focused on Modal Verbs (would), Verbs, Conjunctions, and Prepositions.

• Vocabulary questions included Synonyms & Antonyms for words like Equitable, Tranquil, Apathetic.

• One-word Substitution, Idioms, and Phrasal Verbs (call off, break down) appeared in matching formats.

• A question on Figure of Speech added a literary angle to the paper.

15th May (Shift 1)

• The paper was easy to moderate, aligned with basic comprehension and vocabulary skills.

• Vocabulary-based questions were dominant, focusing on Synonyms, Antonyms, and Contextual Usage.

• 3–4 Reading Comprehension passages tested reading and inference skills.

• No questions on Foreign Words, making vocabulary simpler.

• One-word Substitution and Match the Column questions featured terms like Autocracy and Theology.

15th May (Shift 2)

• The overall paper was moderate to difficult, with a lengthy comprehension-focused structure.

• Three Reading Comprehension passages covered Story-based, Social Media, and Skin Disease topics.

• 5-6 Sentence Arrangementquestions checked logical sequencing abilities.

• A heavy focus on Vocabulary with 12-14 questions on Synonyms/Antonyms of high difficulty level.

• Phrasal Verbs like Bring Up and Bring Down were asked, while grammar had only 1-2 questions.

• Matching the following questions tested vocabulary and idiom understanding.

16th May (Shift 1)

• The section focused on Match the Following, Synonyms & Antonyms, and Sentence Rearrangement questions.

• Match the Column tested knowledge of Idioms, One Word Substitution, and Fill-in-the-Blanks.

• Sentence Rearrangement questions were in majority and considered easy.

• Reading Comprehension passages were literal and narrative, making them easy to solve.

• Synonyms were slightly tougher, while no questions appeared from Foreign Words.

• 1-2 questions tested Poetic Devices, adding a literary component to the exam.

16th May (Shift 2)

• 
  
  The paper was moderate in difficulty, evaluating Grammar, Vocabulary, and Comprehension skills.

• Reading Comprehension passages were direct but required focused reading for accurate answers.

• Grammar questions included Error Spotting, Sentence Improvement, and Fill-in-the-Blanks.

• Vocabulary covered Synonyms, Antonyms, Idioms, and contextual meanings.

• Para-jumbles and Sentence Rearrangement tested logical and sequential arrangement skills.

• Cloze Test passages assessed vocabulary usage in context, checking comprehension depth.

19th May (Shift 1)

• CUET 2025 English section was of moderate difficulty, with a well-distributed focus on reading comprehension, vocabulary, and grammar.

• Three reading comprehension passages were featured: Passage 1 on biodiversity (Q1–4), Passage 2 on language (Q5–8), and Passage 3 on the Euro currency (Q9–12).

• Vocabulary-based questions included 4 on synonyms and 4 on antonyms, requiring precise contextual understanding.

• 4 questions tested idiom usage, evaluating students’ familiarity with common English expressions.

• 8 sentence rearrangement questions assessed logical structuring of ideas and sentence flow.

• 9 fill-in-the-blank questions focused on appropriate word usage, covering verbs, connectors, and prepositions.

• 10 match-the-following questions were included, featuring concepts like verbs, idioms, proverbs, homophones, and parts of speech, adding variety to the grammar section.

19th May (Shift 2)

• CUET 2025 English question paper difficulty level analysis indicates that the paper was largely easy, with only a few moderate-level questions, allowing most students to attempt over 45 questions confidently.

• CUET 2025 English reading comprehension passage types included 16 questions from diverse texts such as a scientific report, a global warming article, and two dialogues (Husband-Wife and Father-Daughter), testing inference and contextual understanding.

• CUET 2025 English grammar and vocabulary question analysis featured questions on phrasal verbs, idioms like Break a Leg, Black Sheep, Bad Egg, and vocabulary testing meanings of challenging words like Truculent, Pugnacious, Genteel, and Disgruntle.

• CUET 2025 English sentence rearrangement and figures of speech questions were prominent, with 10–12 rearrangement-based items and a matching-type question on literary figures of speech, indicating a focus on language structure and style.

• Effective CUET 2025 English exam solving strategies included the use of option elimination to handle tricky or confusing questions efficiently, especially helpful in vocabulary and idiomatic expressions.

20 May (Shift 1)

• Overall Difficulty Level: Easy

• Three Reading Comprehension passages were included, based on topics such as healthy food, a narrative story, and language and communication.

• Around 10–12 questions were asked from Sentence Rearrangement, and most of them were considered doable.

• Grammar was lightly covered with only 2 direct questions.

• Phrasal verb questions featured common usages like "let in", "let out", "get up", and "get off".

• Vocabulary-based questions included 6–8 synonym and antonym items in match-the-following format.

20 May (Shift 2)

• English was an easy and scoring subject in this shift.

• Reading Comprehensions were short and involved both factual and inference-based questions.

• Vocabulary was tested through synonyms, antonyms, and identification of figures of speech.

• Grammar-based questions included sentence rearrangement, fill-in-the-blanks, and error spotting.

• Poetry-based questions featured literary devices like simile, metaphor, and oxymoron.

21 May (Shift 1)

Difficulty Level: Easy

1. Grammar-Based Questions

2. 
   
   

3. Sentence correction and basic grammar rules were tested.

4. Reading Comprehension (RC)

5. Passages included factual content about ISRO, a narrative story, and a conversation-style piece.

6. Vocabulary

7. Synonyms and antonyms were asked for words like loquacious, pugnacious, truculent, and predilection.

   • A question asked for the opposite of "stoic."

   • 1–2 questions were on homophones.

   • 1–2 questions tested one-word substitutions.

   • Idioms and phrases appeared in matching-type questions.

8. Sentence Rearrangement

9. About 10–12 questions required arranging sentences in logical order.

10. Phrasal Verbs

11. Two matching sets included phrasal verbs such as "back out" and "back off."

12. Figures of Speech

13. Although included in the syllabus, no direct question was asked on this topic.

21 May (Shift 2)

• English was slightly more challenging compared to earlier shifts, mainly due to the demanding vocabulary.

• The section included two reading comprehension, one with 7 and another with 8 questions.

• While the RC passages were manageable, vocabulary and grammar-based questions posed difficulty.

• Questions based on literary devices like oxymoron and personification were included.

• Idioms such as “take the bull by the horns” and “wear one’s heart on one’s sleeve” were also tested.

• One-word substitution questions added another layer of complexity.

22 May (Shift 1)

• 
  
  The English paper followed the same pattern as previous shifts.

• Questions were asked from Reading comprehension, Vocabulary, Synonyms-Antonyms, and Grammar.

• Level was moderate and manageable for students with good reading skills.

• Some questions required careful reading of long passages.

22 May (Shift 2)

• 
  
  English was easy in difficulty.

• Included 12 reading comprehension questions based on three passages: Chandrayaan, a conversation, and a story about a couple.

• Sentence rearrangement questions were present.

• Vocabulary tested through synonyms and antonyms including words like luminous, mellifluous, penury, and lugubrious.

• Idioms and phrases such as “Rome is not built in a day” appeared.

• Questions on figure of speech, articles, and adverbs were included.

23 May (Shift 1)

• 
  
  The paper included three comprehension passages, two of which were direct (based on Archaeology and Tea Plantation), and one was indirect.

• There were around 9 to 10 questions based on sentence rearrangement, testing logical flow and coherence.

• Phrasal verb questions focused on commonly used expressions like turn up and turn down.

• Grammar-based fill-in-the-blanks tested knowledge of tenses, modal verbs, and adverbs.

• Vocabulary questions were moderately difficult and included words such as dief, defy, current, and carent.

• There were about 7 to 8 questions assessing vocabulary, including meanings and usage in context.

• Four questions focused on synonyms and antonyms, one example being the pair nearest – closest.

23 May (Shift 2)

• 
  
  The English section was moderate in difficulty.

• There were 3 reading comprehension passages, testing inference and understanding.

• Around 10–12 questions required sentence rearrangement.

• Vocabulary questions included synonyms/antonyms of words like:

  • Pedagogy

  • Palpable

  • Melancholy

  • Irrevocable

  • Grim

  • Sedition

• An idiom-based question asked the meaning of "Slip of the Tongue".

• Questions on phrasal verbs included Look into and Take away.

• One question involved identifying a figure of speech, checking literary device knowled

24 May (Shift 1)

• 
  
  The overall difficulty level of the paper was easy to moderate.

• The paper was relatively lengthy with three comprehension passages.

• Out of the three passages, two were easy and one was of moderate difficulty.

• The first passage focused on the topic of Women Empowerment.

• The second passage was a story-based passage.

• The third passage dealt with the theme of Obesity.

• The idioms section was easy to attempt.

• There were about 12 to 15 rearrangement questions testing sentence ordering skills.

24 May (Shift 2)

• 
  
  Overall Difficulty Level: Easy to Moderate; perceived as manageable by well-prepared students. Those who followed vocabulary sessions from May 13 to May 24 found many familiar questions.

• Question Types

• 
  
  

• 
  

  • Synonyms and Antonyms appeared frequently.

  • Vocabulary-based questions were dominant, with many words repeated from practice sessions.

  • Rearrangement of sentences (10–12 questions approx.) was a significant component.

  • Reading Comprehension (RC) passages were present but included indirect/inferential questions.

  • Idioms & Phrases: Examples included "be the hatch," "tooth and nail" (idiomatic usage).

• Important Vocabulary Areas:

  • Phrasal Verbs: Particularly around “cut,” “put,” “iron,” and “look” (e.g., cut down, put off, look through, iron out).

  • Homonyms and Homophones: Questions included pairs like principal/principle, bail/bale, wave/wave, stationary/stationery, censor/censure.

26 May (Shift 1)

• 
  
  Overall Difficulty Level: Easy, Questions were as per the NCERT standards.

• 12 questions from Reading Comprehension (RC).

• 7–8 questions from Sentence Rearrangement (SR).

• Vocabulary included words like: sagacious, disrupt, disparage.

• Phrasal verbs related to 'get' were asked.

• One RC was based on Ratan Tata.

• From grammar, there were 12 questions based on verbs, and one question was from tenses.

• One question from one-word substitution was about "killing brother" (the answer would be fratricide), and it was in a pair-based format, too.

26 May (Shift 2)

• The section level ranged from easy to moderate.

• Antonyms such as “languish” and “conspicuous” were asked.

• Synonyms included words like “ostentatious” and “precocious.”

• Word-based questions included idioms, phrasal verbs, and one-word substitutions.

• Grammar topics like adverbs and fixed prepositions were tested.

• Around 10 questions were asked on sentence rearrangement for coherence.

• There were 4 reading comprehension passages with 4 questions each.

27 May (Shift 1)

• The section level was easy overall.

• There were 3 reading comprehension passages in total.

• One RC passage was related to the human body and was story-based in format.

• One RC passage was noted as difficult compared to the others.

• Around 6-7 easy questions were asked from one-word substitution.

• Match the following type questions were included in the paper.

• Vocabulary questions featured words such as "benedict" and "valiant."

• There were 1-2 questions from grammar topics.

• Fill in the blanks questions were present, including contexts involving weather (raining).

• The section was accessible for candidates with basic preparation.

• The emphasis was on fundamental vocabulary and comprehension skills rather than complex grammatical concepts

28th May (Shift 1)

• The overall difficulty level was Moderate, making it manageable for well-prepared candidates.

• The English section featured 3 Reading Comprehension passages as the major component.

• One RC passage was based on Sustainable Development, reflecting contemporary themes.

• Another RC was Conversational in nature, testing understanding of dialogue-based content.

• Sentence Arrangement questions dominated the paper with 10-15 questions, forming a significant portion.

• Synonyms and Antonyms were tested with moderately challenging words including Assiduous, Ardent, and Prudent.

• The paper was easy level with well-structured reading comprehension passages that were simple to understand and answer.

• Reading comprehension dominated with 3 passages covering diverse topics - rainwater harvesting, Arjun's life struggle story, and railway-related content, making it scoring for regular readers.

• Sentence rearrangement questions (4-5) were straightforward and rewarded students who practiced logical sequencing regularly.

• Vocabulary section tested important words like Ephemeral, Frugal, Extravagant, Evanescent through synonyms and antonyms, requiring good word knowledge.

• Idioms and phrases were from commonly used expressions like "Face the Music," "Under the Weather," and "Rolling Stone Gathers No Moss."

• Phrasal verbs focused on basic combinations with "Put On," "Put Off," and "Rank Over," testing everyday English usage.

• Grammar section had minimal weightage with 1-2 questions on fill-in-the-blanks and adverb identification, making vocabulary the key scoring area.

• The paper had balanced difficulty with 3 reading comprehension passages including one poetic passage, testing both direct and indirect comprehension skills.

• Vocabulary section was extensive with synonyms/antonyms covering advanced words like versatile, desultory, fastidious, innocuous, impromptu, obscure, and piqued.

• Idioms focused on commonly tested expressions like "at 11th hour," "burn one's boat," "curry favor," and "chip in," rewarding students with good phrase knowledge.

• Phrasal verbs were heavily weighted with questions on "come" and "hold" combinations (come up with, come around, come under, hold back, hold off, held over).

• One word substitution tested precise vocabulary with words like Ephemeral, Loquacious, Isthmus, and Neologist, requiring strong definitional knowledge.

• Sentence rearrangement had significant weightage with 7-8 questions, making logical sequencing skills crucial for scoring.

• The paper was Easy to Moderate level with 3 reading comprehensions covering agriculture, narrative, and story-based passages, providing diverse content for comprehension skills.

• Sentence rearrangement had significant weightage with 6-7 questions, making logical sequencing a crucial scoring area for prepared students.

• Grammar section focused on practical applications through fill-in-the-blanks, preposition matching, and one present tense question, testing fundamental language rules.

• Vocabulary was tested through 2-3 synonyms/antonyms (Ubiquitous, Abstruse, Eradicate), phrasal verb "Run into," and idiom "Castle in Air."

• Specialized sections included unseen poetic passage, one word substitution (Graphology), and homophones (Aid, Aerial), requiring diverse English language skills.

13th May (Shift 1)

• Moderate difficulty level focused on NCERT concepts requiring strong conceptual clarity and consistent practice.
  
  

• Key topics included integration and applications of integrals, symmetric matrices, matrix inverses, probability (Bayes' theorem), and vector algebra.
  
  

• Geometry questions tested 3D concepts like perpendicularity and direction cosines; calculus questions covered one-one/onto functions, inverse trig functions, and differential equations.
  
  

• The paper was lengthy and calculation-heavy, demanding efficient time management and accuracy.

13th May (Shift 2)

• Covered quadratic equations, polynomials, factorization, and coordinate geometry with moderate difficulty.
  
  

• Calculus questions on limits, differentiation, and derivatives were somewhat tricky; probability and statistics focused on basic measures like mean, median, mode.
  
  

• Matrices, determinants, vector algebra, and 3D geometry were formula-based and moderate in difficulty.
  
  

• Overall time-consuming but manageable for well-prepared students.

14th May (Shift 1)

• Included direct questions on profit percentage, distance formula, properties of triangles and parallelograms.
  
  

• Emphasized standard formulas for perimeter, surface area of 3D figures, matrix multiplication, and integration problems.
  
  

• Topics like time, speed & distance (train problems), trigonometry (heights & distances), probability basics, and measures of central tendency were also included.
  
  

• Diverse question set manageable with solid formula knowledge and practice.

14th May (Shift 2)

• The CUET 2025 Maths section had 4-5 Match-the-Following questions on volumes of cone, circle, and square using radius values.

• Profit and Loss had one simple and one lengthy complex problem.

• Important questions appeared from Height & Distance, Percentage (Income & Expenditure), and Triangles (Exterior Angle).

• One Boat and Stream question and tricky problems on Mean, Median, and Mode were included.

• Coordinate Geometry (collinear points) and Probability formulas also had one question each.

15th May (Shift 2)

• The paper was easy to moderate but considered lengthy due to calculation-heavy questions.

• Most questions required solving fully before eliminating options, testing accuracy.

• Well-prepared students could easily attempt 40-45 questions.

• The section tested conceptual clarity and time management.

• The CUET 2025 Maths exam analysis highlights its focus on application-based problem-solving.

16th May (Shift 1)

• The overall difficulty was easy, with 15-16 out of 17-18 questions being straightforward.

• Each major chapter was covered, ensuring complete CUET 2025 syllabus representation.

• Lengthy problems appeared in Permutations & Combinations and tricky Algebra questions.

• Key topics included Simple Interest, Speed-Time-Distance, Profit & Loss, Ratio & Proportion, Time & Work, Efficiency, and Probability.

• Mensuration questions (Cylinders, Height Ratio) and Coordinate Geometry problems added variety.

16th May (Shift 2)

• The paper was moderate to difficult, with time-consuming, multi-step problems.

• Key topics: Calculus, Matrices & Determinants, Probability, Vectors, and Differential Equations.

• Coordinate Geometry was prominent with complex numerical questions.

• Assertion-Reason based problems tested conceptual application and logical reasoning.

• The CUET Maths section required strong problem-solving skills and efficient time management due to lengthy calculations.

19th May (Shift 1)

• CUET 2025 Mathematics question paper's length and difficulty level review highlighted a lengthy paper requiring extensive calculations, testing students’ time management and accuracy skills.

• Arithmetic Progression and compound interest questions featured, including formula-based questions such as Mode = 3 × Median – 2 × Mean, challenging students’ understanding of key mathematical concepts.

• Mensuration and geometry question types included volume conversion from Cylinder to Sphere and a Height and Distance problem, emphasizing spatial reasoning skills.

• Algebra and coordinate geometry question difficulty analysis showed an easy algebra question but a relatively difficult coordinate geometry problem, increasing overall question variety.

• CUET 2025 Mathematics question paper's topic coverage excluded Profit and Loss questions but included Percentage, Train problems, and Time and Work questions, reflecting selective topic emphasis in the exam pattern.

19th May (Shift 2)

• The CUET 2025 Mathematics question paper's difficulty level was moderate and the paper was considered lengthy, with nearly 20 questions that required careful time management.

• The paper included Arithmetic Progression questions focusing on mid-term calculations, testing students’ grasp of sequences and series.

• Conceptually challenging questions appeared in the Simple and Compound Interest topics, demanding a solid understanding of financial mathematics.

• Topics like Profit and Loss and Simplification were relatively easy, allowing students to secure quick marks in these areas.

• Additional questions covered Average, Probability with card-based problems, and Coordinate Geometry, the latter appearing for the third time in recent CUET exams.

• Mensuration questions focused on cube geometry, while a statistics question tested knowledge of Mean, Median, and Mode concepts.

• The paper also included questions on Boats and Trains, assessing concepts of total distance and relative speed, alongside one question each on LCM and HCF, adding to the topic variety.

20 May (Shift 1)

• The paper featured a question from Height and Distance requiring application of trigonometry.

• Geometry-based questions were easy, such as finding the area of a circle and the volume of a cone.

• A matching-type question was asked on mensuration formulas.

• Word problems included Time and Work, Profit and Loss, and Percentage.

• No questions were asked from Ratio and Proportion in this shift.

• One Algebra question and one Probability question were included.

20 May (Shift 2)

• Mathematics paper ranged from moderate to tough in difficulty.

• Calculus and Algebra were the most frequently asked topics.

• Many questions were lengthy and time-consuming.

• Coordinate Geometry and Vector Algebra posed difficulty for several students.

• The paper included tricky, application-based problems.

22 May (Shift 1)

• Most students found it to be the toughest subject among PCM.

• Questions were lengthy and required accurate calculations.

• Topics like Vectors, 3D Geometry, Calculus, and Probability were covered.

• Less focus on case-study-based questions; more traditional question formats.

• Time-consuming paper, making it difficult to attempt all questions.

• Students suggested solving speed was a crucial factor.

22 May (Shift 2)

• The Mathematics section was lengthy but composed of mostly easy questions.

• Key topics included Public Law, Mensuration, Geometry, and Statistics focusing on median.

• Other important areas were Number System and Ratio.

23 May (Shift 1)

• Questions were based on NCERT concepts and covered a wide range of topics.

• Percentage and ratio problems were simple and formula-driven.

• Mensuration and geometry questions required direct application of known formulas.

• Number system questions involved basic arithmetic operations and logic.

• Probability questions were simple and involved basic theoretical understanding.

• Overall, the section was well-balanced and scoring for students with basic preparation.

27th May (Shift 1)

• Moderate level of questions were asked in this section

• Mensuration featured cone-related problems, testing solid geometry concepts.

• Number System included unit digit questions, requiring pattern recognition skills.

• 2 questions from Time and Work covered work efficiency and rate problems.

• Probability questions tested basic probability concepts and applications.

• 1 question from Arithmetic Progression focused on sequence and series fundamentals.

• 1 question from Algebra required finding the value of variable K.

• Questions related to Equilateral Triangle properties and calculations.

Moderate Difficulty

• A ratio-based age problem was included in the paper.

• A mensuration question involved calculating area or perimeter of a rectangle.

• A cuboid-based geometry question was also present.

• Compound and simple interest questions were asked and were of moderate level.

• Two questions were asked from the Time and Work chapter.

• Heights and Distances questions tested basic trigonometric applications.

• A formula-based question came from mean, median, and mode.

• Profit and loss included a discount-related question.

• A basic probability question tested conceptual understanding.

• The paper was difficult level with Matrix and Determinants dominating through 10-12 questions, making it the most crucial topic for scoring in the exam.

• Integration appeared with a significant weightage of 7-8 questions, requiring strong calculus fundamentals and formula application skills.

• Diverse topics included Probability matching questions, Vector problems, Differential Equations degree finding, and Cost Inverse calculations, testing comprehensive mathematical knowledge.

• Applied mathematics featured Linear Programming questions, while pure mathematics covered Relations & Functions types, balancing theoretical and practical problem-solving skills.

• The paper required strong conceptual clarity and extensive practice in calculus and algebra for effective performance.

• Paper was difficult and lengthy, mainly the questions were from Calculus and Integration.

• Question was asked from Application of Derivatives (AOD) – Increasing/Decreasing

• Question was asked from Differential Equation

• 4–5 questions were asked from Linear Programming

• Not much questions from Matrices and Determinants

• Question was asked from Type of Relation

• Question was asked from Application of Integration

• Question was asked from Parabola

• Question was asked from Dot and Cross Product

• Overall paper level was Moderate

13th May (Shift 1)

• The CUET 2025 Chemistry paper difficulty was easy to moderate, with a major focus on organic chemistry topics like reaction mechanisms, conversions, and IUPAC naming, making it scoring for well-prepared students.
  
  

• Important sections included coordination compounds, chemical kinetics along with, electrochemistry (EMF and Nernst equation), and D- & F-block elements, while biomolecules and solutions had limited weightage.
  
  

• The paper featured fewer numerical problems, reducing the calculative load, with questions on practical applications such as molality calculations from percentage weight, and order-based questions on acidic-basic reactions and SN1/SN2 mechanisms.
  
  

13th May (Shift 2)

• The CUET 2025 Organic Chemistry section covered reaction mechanisms, IUPAC nomenclature, and isomerism at a moderate difficulty level, testing core conceptual understanding.
  
  

• Inorganic Chemistry emphasized periodic table trends, coordination compounds, and metallurgy, while Physical Chemistry involved calculative questions on mole concept, thermodynamics, and equilibrium.
  
  

• Topics like surface chemistry and biomolecules, chemical bonding, molecular structure, and practical questions on salt analysis and titration ensured balanced coverage across the Chemistry syllabus.

14th May (Shift 1)

• The CUET 2025 Chemistry paper included advanced conceptual and numerical questions on colligative properties (Van’t Hoff factor), chemical kinetics (rate and order of reaction), and coordination chemistry (chelate effect, ambidentate ligands, and IUPAC nomenclature).
  
  

• Passage-based and multi-statement questions assessed deeper understanding of topics like electrolytic cells, magnetic moment calculations, d and f block elements, and important reactions such as Rosenmund reduction, Tollens’ test, and Fehling’s test.
  
  

• Organic and carbohydrate chemistry questions focused on SN1 reactivity, nitration reactions, sucrose hydrolysis, glucopyranose structure, and boiling point trends based on intermolecular forces.

14th May (Shift 2)

• The CUET 2025 Chemistry question paper was rated easy to moderate, ideal for students well-prepared with NCERT Class 12 Chemistry syllabus and concepts.
  
  

• Questions were predominantly direct and NCERT-based, with very few tricky or application-intensive problems, making the paper straightforward for sincere NCERT revision.
  
  

• The chemistry paper focused on fundamental topics from Physical, Organic, and Inorganic Chemistry as per the CUET 2025 Chemistry syllabus.
  
  

• Students found the paper scoring, especially if they had thoroughly revised NCERT Chemistry textbooks and practiced previous years’ CUET Chemistry questions.

15th May (Shift 1)

• The CUET 2025 Chemistry paper (Shift 2) difficulty level was easy to moderate overall, with a balanced mix of Organic, Inorganic, and Physical Chemistry questions.

• Organic Chemistry had the highest weightage with 27 questions, covering important topics like IUPAC naming, Werner’s theory, nucleophilic substitution, Tollen’s and Fehling’s reagents, and a Cumene process-based reaction question.

• Physical Chemistry questions (8-12 in number) focused on application-based topics like the Van’t Hoff factor, Henry’s Law, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics, and acidic strength comparison problems.

• Inorganic Chemistry (D & F block) section had 12 questions, with repetitive questions on Glucose structure, ionization energy of the 3d series, and carbonic acid formula identification.

• A significant paragraph-type comprehension question on Coordination Compounds was also included, containing 7–8 sub-questions testing conceptual clarity.

16th May (Shift 1)

• The CUET 2025 Chemistry question paper's difficulty level ranged from easy to moderate, offering a balanced challenge across all major chemistry branches.

• Organic chemistry dominated the CUET 2025 Chemistry question paper, with approximately 25-27 questions focusing on reaction mechanisms and important organic reactions like Hoffman Bromamide and ether reactions with HI.

• Inorganic chemistry questions numbered around 10-11, covering fundamental concepts including magnetic moment and electron configurations.

• The Physical chemistry portion included 12-13 questions, testing students on concepts such as isotonic solutions and other NCERT Exemplar-based topics.

• Important biochemistry-related questions appeared, such as those on hydrolysis of cellulose, animal starch, and electron configuration focusing on unpaired electrons and propene chemistry, reflecting the diverse syllabus coverage.

16th May (Shift 2)

• The CUET 2025 Chemistry paper difficulty level was moderate, with a slight emphasis on Physical and Organic Chemistry topics.

• Key topics such as Chemical Kinetics, Electrochemistry, Coordination Compounds, and Biomolecules featured prominently, reflecting important areas in the syllabus.

• Numerical problems were straightforward but required careful accuracy to avoid calculation errors.

• The paper included Assertion-Reason and statement-based questions, designed to test students’ deep conceptual understanding.

• Organic chemistry focused on reaction mechanisms, with mechanism-based questions playing a significant role.

• Several questions were directly from NCERT textbooks, emphasizing factual knowledge and ensuring alignment with standard curricula.

• Overall, students found the Chemistry section balanced yet slightly lengthy, demanding good time management skills.

19th May (Shift 1)

• The CUET 2025 Chemistry question paper overall difficulty level ranged from easy to moderate, with a strong focus on conceptual and theory-based questions.

• No out-of syllabus or unseen questions appeared, ensuring alignment with the prescribed syllabus and making preparation more predictable.

• Some questions had confusing options, adding a moderate level of challenge despite straightforward concepts.

• Many questions were similar to previous year questions (PYQs), indicating repetition and trend consistency in the CUET exam pattern.

• Important chapters like Solutions were tested with questions on Freezing Point Depression, Raoult’s Law, and a specific question on the Lucas Test.

• Topics on Isomerism and optical activity/inactivity were included, along with a structural question based on Sucrose, reflecting emphasis on organic chemistry fundamentals.

• Overall, the paper was theory-heavy with limited numerical problems, favoring students strong in conceptual understanding.

19th May (Shift 2)

• The CUET 2025 Chemistry paper difficulty was moderate, featuring a balanced mix of conceptual and application-based questions.

• Most questions were NCERT based chemistry questions, with a few requiring deeper conceptual understanding beyond the basics.

• Organic Chemistry included 2–3 questions focusing on reaction mechanisms and IUPAC nomenclature, testing students’ core organic concepts.

• Physical Chemistry questions featured numerical problems on Mole Concept, Thermodynamics, and Chemical Equilibrium, demanding calculation accuracy and conceptual clarity.

• Inorganic Chemistry had 2 questions related to Periodic Table trends and Coordination Compounds, emphasizing fundamental inorganic principles.

20 May (Shift 2)

• Chemistry paper was considered easy to moderate in difficulty.

• Most questions were factual and directly from the NCERT textbook.

• Equal weightage was given to Inorganic and Organic Chemistry.

• Important topics included Coordination Compounds and Aldehydes/Ketones.

• Physical Chemistry questions were basic and involved simple formula-based problems.

22 May (Shift 1)

• Considered the easiest among the PCM subjects in this shift.

• Majority of questions were directly from NCERT, making it very familiar for prepared students.

• Around 8-10 numerical questions were reported but they were formula-based and straightforward.

• Important topics included Solutions, Chemical Kinetics, Biomolecules, and Coordination Compounds.

• Balanced mix of Organic, Inorganic, and Physical Chemistry.

• Students found the paper comfortable and predictable.

23 May (Shift 2)

• 
  The paper was easy to moderate in difficulty.

• Questions were directly based on the NCERT, with minimal deviation.

• A comprehension-type paragraph was included from Electrochemistry and Kinetics.

• Biomolecules had fewer questions than expected.

• A Match the Following tested knowledge of naming reactions.

• There were 2 IUPAC naming reactions, checking basic nomenclature understanding.

• A numerical/conceptual question on the conductance unit was asked.

• One difficult question from Coordination Chemistry was included.

24 May (Shift 2)

• The Chemistry paper was of moderate difficulty, with questions spread evenly across different topics.

• Numerical questions were present but were generally easy to moderate in difficulty.

• The paper included questions from Physical Chemistry, especially colligative properties and chemical kinetics.

• Questions on organic chemistry were mostly about IUPAC naming, reactions, and identifying functional groups.

• Inorganic chemistry questions covered topics like vitamin deficiency diseases, periodic table properties, and some theory-based questions.

• There were some questions requiring the use of formulas and conceptual understanding, not just rote memorization.

• The paper had a mix of theoretical and application-based questions.

• Electrochemistry questions appeared but were generally straightforward and formula-based.28th May (Shift 1)

28th May
(Shift 2)

• Paper was easy to moderate

• T50 given and T100 was asked

• Formula of alum was asked

• Question from double salt came

• Rate of reaction related question came

• SN2 reaction rate was asked

• Aniline basic strength was asked

• Coupling reaction question came

• Named reactions matching question came

• Anomers-related question was asked

28th May (Shift 1)

• Difficulty level of the exam is Easy to Moderate

• Direct Questions from NCERT resources

• Match the following questions from Azeotrope and Ideal and Non-Ideal solutions.

• Statement-based questions from Complex Reactions.

• Catalyst-related questions were frequently asked.

• Graphical questions from Zero Order Reaction tested kinetics understanding.

• Electrochemistry

Paragraph and kinetics questions required conceptual clarity.

Faraday's Law numerical questions demanded quantitative problem-solving skills.

• Inorganic Chemistry

Question from Inner and Outer Orbital theory.

Questions related to the Magnetic Moment test coordination compound properties.

• Organic Chemistry

6-7 questions from Biomolecules, emphasizing structural knowledge.

Vitamin K deficiency diseases are tested for biochemical applications.

Easy to Moderate | Numerical, Conceptual, and Matching-Type Mix

• A matching-type question from ideal and non-ideal solutions was included.

• Colligative properties were tested through a formula-based numerical.

• Chemical kinetics had a rate law question based on first-order reactions.

• Molecularity was assessed through a statement-based conceptual question.

• Electrochemistry had numerical-based application questions.

• Coordination compounds included an IUPAC nomenclature question.

• A question related to the structure and function of Cisplatin was asked.

• Increasing order of unpaired electrons was tested conceptually.

• Lanthanide contraction was directly asked.

• A paragraph-based question focused on vitamins.

• Organic chemistry included questions from phenol and benzoic acid compounds.

• HVZ reaction and Tollens’ reagent-based questions were also present.

• Paper was easy.

• Question was asked on IUPAC name of Metacresol

• Question was asked on Formula of Freon

• Question was asked from Swarts Reaction

• Question was asked from Azo Coupling Reaction

• Question was asked from SN2 Reaction in Aryl Halide

• 2 questions were asked from Boiling Point

• 2 questions were asked on Basic Nature

• Question was asked on Application of Henry’s Law

• Question was asked on Molality

• Question was asked on Hybridisation

• Question was asked from Biomolecules – Uracil Structure

• Question was asked on Amino Acids – Match the Following

13th May (Shift 1)

• The Political Science paper was easy to moderate, mainly featuring direct NCERT-based questions on Indian politics and the Constitution.
  
  

• Passage-based questions tested comprehension of contemporary political movements such as LTTE and Nepal’s democratic transition.
  
  

• Included straightforward questions on Indian independence history, constitutional provisions like Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), and post-independence political developments.
  
  

• Well-suited for students with a strong NCERT foundation in Political Science.

13th May (Shift 2)

• The syllabus covered fundamental rights, directive principles, constitutional amendments, and core political theories including liberty, equality, justice, and secularism.
  
  

• Contemporary World Politics questions focused on globalization, the United Nations, and India’s international relations role.
  
  

• Indian politics topics included emergency provisions, electoral reforms, political parties, Cold War era, Non-Aligned Movement, regional aspirations, and federalism.
  
  

• The paper maintained an easy to moderate difficulty level with scenario-based questions aligned closely with NCERT syllabus content.

14th May (Shift 2)

• The CUET 2025 Political Science question paper difficulty level was overall easy, focusing on a mix of contemporary and historical political topics relevant to current affairs and political history.

• Important questions covered Soviet leaders like Gorbachev, key historical events such as the Berlin Wall fall, USSR independence, and the Kashmir conflict, testing knowledge of global and regional politics.

• A chronological order question on political party formation including Socialist Party, Swatantra Party, CPI, and National Front assessed students’ understanding of political history timelines.

• Questions related to Mandal Commission, the Emergency period, constitutional articles like Article 51, and commissions reporting on the Emergency were included, highlighting key constitutional and political developments.

• The paper also emphasized Indian politics topics like BAMCEF, Karpoori Thakur, SAARC, Earth Summit, and emerging non-traditional security concepts, drawing extensively from the second political science book syllabus.

15th May (Shift 1)

• The CUET 2025 Political Science question paper difficulty level was easy, making it a highly scoring subject for most candidates.

• Questions were primarily NCERT Political Science textbook based, with minimal deviation from the prescribed syllabus, ensuring predictable preparation.

• The paper focused on factual recall over analytical or higher-order thinking questions, resulting in minimal domain-based difficulty.

• A notable question on West Asia current affairs and international relations tested candidates’ awareness of global political dynamics.

• The emphasis on NCERT-based content reinforced the importance of thorough textbook preparation for success in CUET 2025 Political Science.

15th May (Shift 2)

• The CUET 2025 Political Science question paper difficulty level ranged from easy to moderate, with a strong focus on the "Aya Ram Gaya Ram" phenomenon and the Congress System chapter, contributing five questions.

• Important questions covered India-Pakistan agreements such as the Shimla and Tashkent agreements, testing candidates’ knowledge of bilateral relations and historical treaties.

• Match the following questions included key regional leaders like Lal Denga (Mizoram) and Angami Zepu Fizo (Nagaland), highlighting regional political movements.

• Questions on the Leaders of the Railway Strike and Prime Ministers post-1989 reflected emphasis on recent political history.

• Topics such as the Bombay Plan, United Fund, Morcha Sarkar, and the First Mantri Mandal were included, indicating diverse coverage of political reforms and movements.

• A passage on Princely States formed the basis for five questions, assessing comprehension and historical knowledge.

• Over 20 questions were directly repeated from previous year questions (PYQs), emphasizing the importance of practicing past CUET Political Science papers.

16th May (Shift 1)

• The CUET 2025 Political Science question paper difficulty level was easy, with 15–20 questions directly based on previous year questions (PYQs), making it highly scoring for well-prepared candidates.

• Questions on international organizations in CUET Political Science included the WTO, World Bank headquarters, and acronyms like UNFCCC and UNEP, along with environmental governance topics such as the Kyoto Protocol and Lisbon Treaty 2009.

• A picture-based question set on Jawaharlal Nehru tested students’ understanding of India’s foreign policy and political history, while matching questions from “End of Bipolarity” covered Cold War themes.

• Topics like ASEAN, Indo-Pak relations, and United Nations (UN) appeared under international relations, reinforcing the importance of global political awareness.

• Indian politics questions included Kerala’s CPI government, Presidential Rule, and Mandal Commission, emphasizing factual recall and the relevance of recurring topics in CUET Political Science.

16th May (Shift 2)

• The CUET 2025 Political Science question paper difficulty level was moderate, with a strong emphasis on conceptual understanding over rote memorization.

• Key topics included the Indian Constitution, major political ideologies, and international relations, forming the foundation of several core questions.

• The paper featured assertion-reason and statement-conclusion type questions, requiring analytical thinking and interpretation of political principles.

• Match the following and chronology-based political science questions were included, alongside application-based scenarios that tested real-life political awareness.

• While NCERT-based factual questions were present, time management was essential due to lengthy and wordy question statements throughout the exam.

19th May (Shift 1)

• The CUET 2025 Political Science question paper included comprehension passages based on the Partition of 1947 (with an image) and the First Five-Year Plans, testing students’ understanding of historical and developmental milestones.

• Key questions focused on the chronology and objectives of Five-Year Plans, alongside a current affairs-based question about the Chairman of NITI Aayog.

• Topics like Operation Blue Star, the Mandal Commission, and other commission-related questions highlighted important political events and caste-based policy developments.

• A constitutional article-based question was included, along with factual questions on the origin of the Indian National Congress and the organization behind its formation.

• The paper combined historical political knowledge with NCERT-based content, emphasizing both conceptual clarity and current political awareness.

19th May (Shift 2)

• The CUET 2025 Political Science paper difficulty level was easy, with most questions being factual and directly based on NCERT content.

• A key question tested knowledge of the minimum age requirement for Vice-President of India, with the correct answer being 35 years.

• The paper featured questions on the formation of Indian states, emphasizing state reorganization and historical context.

• A notable factual question stated that Gujarat was the 15th state of India, formed in 1960, testing candidates' grasp of post-independence political developments.

20 May (Shift 1)

• Overall Difficulty Level: Moderate

• Several questions were based on multiple-statement formats, requiring careful analysis and interpretation.

• One question tested knowledge about the USSR, possibly in the context of the Cold War.

• The Bombay Plan (1944) was referenced in a question about economic planning in post-independence India.

• State Reorganisation was covered through factual and constitutional aspects.

20 May (Shift 2)

• Most questions in Political Science were asked from the second textbook, Politics in India Since Independence.

• Constitutional articles were frequently asked, with specific references noted in the morning shift.

• The paper covered themes like post-independence governance and political developments.

• Questions were conceptual and required a deep understanding of the topics.

24 May (Shift 2)

• The paper was moderate to easy in difficulty.

• Direct NCERT-based questions dominated the paper, especially from both Contemporary World Politics and Politics in India Since Independence.

• Questions were mostly factual and one-liners, making it a scoring paper.

• Some questions tested understanding of political ideologies and international relations.

• Topics like Non-Aligned Movement, Cold War, United Nations, and globalisation were asked.

• Indian politics topics such as Emergency, Coalition Era, and Electoral Politics were included.

26 May (Shift 1)

• Questions related to World Bank, including one on International Day was asked.

• A conceptual question on the Socialist Revolution was asked.

• A question on Mikhail Gorbachev and his role in political reforms was asked.

• Multiple questions from ASEAN, focusing on identifying 5 member countries were asked.

• Around 5 questions from the topic Rise of the Chinese Economy, covering economic reforms and global impact were asked.

• A balanced number of questions from each major topic, with no overemphasis on a single area.

• A question on Democracy in Pakistan, focusing on political developments was asked.

• A question on China's entry into the WTO was asked.

• A factual question on Water Treaties, likely related to international agreements was asked.

27th May (Shift 1)

• Easy level of questions were asked in Political Science 27 May 2025 Shift 1 from this section

• Theory-based questions with passage comprehension format dominated the section.

• Memory-based questions required recall of key political concepts and historical events.

• Topics covered in the end of bipolarity include post-Cold War international relations and global political shifts.

• India's External Relations questions examined foreign policy decisions and diplomatic strategies.

• Match-type questions tested the knowledge correlation between concepts, events, and personalities.

• Multiple statement-based questions required analytical skills to evaluate the correctness of given statements.

27th May
(Shift 2)

• The paper was easy.

• The full form of LTTE was asked from the South Asia chapter.

• A question was asked about who proposed the two-nation theory.

• A question was asked about the Prime Minister of India, with the answer being Atal Bihari Vajpayee.

• A question was asked related to the Mandal Commission.

• A question was asked about the working of the World Social Forum (WSF).

• A passage-based question from globalization was asked.

• A question from the Emergency period was asked.

• Five questions were asked related to the World Bank.

• A question related to the Punjab Accord was asked.

• A question related to Non-Congressism was asked.

• A question related to general elections was asked.

28th May (Shift 1)

• The overall difficulty level was Easy with 15-20 questions directly sourced from Previous Year Questions, making it highly predictable for prepared candidates.

• ASEAN Logo contributed 5 easy MCQs, while a United Nations passage appeared for comprehension-based questions.

• Contemporary political topics included India's Nuclear Test, ABM Treaty provisions, and USSR's 1985 General Secretary Mikhail Gorbachev.

• Historical and policy questions covered Open Door Policy adoption, Congress System concepts, and 4th Lok Sabha election dates.

• Regional studies featured questions on Student movements and Sri Lanka's Independence, testing knowledge of South Asian political developments.

• The paper was primarily NCERT-based with statement-based questions dominating the pattern, making it favorable for students who focused on textbook content.

• Chronological arrangement questions appeared twice, testing historical sequence knowledge of political events and developments.

• International relations section featured matching questions on UN General Secretary functions and 5 picture-based questions on Mikhail Gorbachev, emphasizing global political awareness.

• Indian political history was covered through 1971 Elections questions focusing on voting percentage and electoral statistics.

13th May (Shift 1)

• The Economics paper included two passages: one syllabus-based and one out-of-syllabus on GST, with 5 questions focused on real-world economic applications.
  
  

• Approximately 5 numerical questions tested skills in elasticity of demand, consumer equilibrium, money supply (M1–M4 aggregates), and market equilibrium, emphasizing problem-solving and formula application.
  
  

• Multiple select questions (MSQs), a case study on revenue, and value-based questions combined conceptual clarity with data interpretation and ethical understanding.

13th May (Shift 2)

• The syllabus covered Microeconomics topics like demand-supply curves, elasticity, and market structures, alongside Macroeconomics concepts such as national income, money and banking, and government budget.
  
  

• Indian Economy questions focused on economic sectors, poverty, unemployment, inflation, GDP trends, and recent monetary policy updates.
  
  

• Numerical problems tested balance of payments and fiscal deficit calculations, while conceptual questions addressed economic development and sustainable growth, making the paper moderately challenging.

14th May (Shift 1)

• 
  
  The paper was notably tougher than earlier shifts, featuring many multiple option questions (MOQs) and case-based MCQs, including passages on Production Theory (Microeconomics) and Balance of Payments (Macroeconomics).
  
  

• Production Theory appeared as a new syllabus topic, increasing difficulty alongside complex cost-related case questions and national income methods.
  
  

• Key topics tested included evolution of money, elasticity of demand and supply, and 6–7 sequence and arrangement questions, all aligned with NCERT but at a higher difficulty level.

15th May (Shift 1)

• Microeconomics dominated the CUET 2025 Economics paper, with a greater number of questions compared to Macroeconomics, making microeconomic concepts crucial for scoring.

• The paper included matching-type questions and a numerical problem on National Income, testing key macroeconomic fundamentals.

• A case study based on Demand and Supply (5 questions) assessed students’ grasp of market equilibrium and price mechanism.

• Previous shift’s Producer’s Equilibrium case study indicated a consistent focus on core microeconomic theories across exam sessions.

• Another case study from Macroeconomics on Money Supply challenged students on banking systems and monetary aggregates.

• The toughest questions involved curve relationships, such as Consumer Equilibrium and National Income calculations, requiring strong conceptual clarity and numerical skills.

• Importantly, there were no questions related to NCERT book authors, keeping the emphasis strictly on essential economic theories and applications.

16th May (Shift 1)

• The paper emphasized demand, supply, and elasticity concepts with significant question weightage, reflecting fundamental market principles.

• Several numerical questions focused on National Income and related economic aggregates, testing quantitative aptitude.

• Direct questions on Budget and Fiscal Policy evaluated students’ understanding of government financial management.

• Topics like demand forecasting and types of demand featured prominently, linking theory with practical market scenarios.

• Price determination and market equilibrium questions assessed analytical skills regarding price-setting mechanisms.

• Production-related concepts such as the Production Function and Returns to Scale were tested, requiring conceptual understanding.

• Students faced questions on inflation, deflation, and their economic impacts, highlighting macroeconomic fluctuations.

• Public finance topics including GST, direct and indirect taxes were covered to test knowledge of fiscal policies.

• Mixed questions combining micro and macroeconomic elements (like autonomous and induced investments) enhanced conceptual integration.

• The paper also touched upon the Indian Economy, focusing on demonetization and its economic consequences.

• Numerical problems involving revenue, cost curves, and profit maximization demanded calculation proficiency.

16th May (Shift 2)

• The paper was easy to moderate, with a good balance between theory and numericals.

• NCERT-based questions from Microeconomics and Macroeconomics dominated.

• Numerical problems on National Income, Money, and Banking were simple but required precision.

• Assertion-Reason questions tested deep conceptual clarity.

• Graph and data interpretation questions were included and required careful analysis.

• A few application-based questions linked theory to real-world economic scenarios.

• Students found the paper predictable with no out-of-syllabus surprises.

22 May (Shift 2)

• The Economics section was easy in difficulty level.

• A passage-based question covered Excess Demand and Income Determination.

• Microeconomics topics included questions on the indifference curve with both ordinal and cardinal concepts.

• Numerical questions tested elasticity and slope index form.

• Questions on marginal production and cost concepts focused on long-run cost and short-run average cost.

• Macroeconomics questions involved government budget and resource reallocation.

• Five questions were asked from National Income, covering nominal GDP and real GDP concepts.

24 May (Shift 2)

• Overall, the paper was rated as moderate in difficulty.

• Assertion-Reason and case-based questions were present, but not overly tricky.

• Questions from both Microeconomics and Macroeconomics appeared with a slight tilt towards macro.

• Topics included National Income, Government Budget, Money and Banking, and Demand/Supply.

• A few numerical problems were asked, mostly formula-based and doable with basic concept clarity.

• Some students felt graphical interpretation questions could be slightly tricky.

• Overall, well-aligned with NCERT content.

26 May (Shift 2)

• The paper was of moderate difficulty overall.

• Microeconomics made up around 60–70% of the questions.

• The remaining questions came from Macroeconomics topics.

• Two to three numericals tested various types of elasticity.

• Two numericals on National Income were based on the Income Method.

• One comprehension passage assessed interpretation of economic data.

• Theoretical concepts were tested alongside application-based questions.

• The paper was lengthy with difficult passages, making time management crucial for students to complete all sections effectively.

• Microeconomics had direct questions from Cardinal utility theory and PPC concepts, while numerical questions from cost chapter focused on finding variable cost and AFC rectangular hyperbola properties.

• Perfect competition dominated with 5 very easy theoretical questions, providing good scoring opportunities for well-prepared students.

• Macroeconomics featured numerical problems on revenue deficit, depreciation in national income, and multiple question types from stock and flow concepts.

• Monetary policy and GDP matching questions tested policy understanding, while the overall paper balanced theory with application-based numerical problems.

• Paper was moderate to difficult

• From Microeconomics:

• Question was asked from Introduction – Adam Smith

• Question was asked from MC and MR Approach in Producer Equilibrium

• Question was asked from Perfect Competition – Price and Determination
  
  

• From Macroeconomics:

• Matching question was asked from Balance of Payments (BOP)

• 50% questions came from Microeconomics, 50% from Macroeconomics
  
  

• The paper was difficult level with heavy numerical emphasis through 10-12 calculation-based questions, making quantitative problem-solving skills essential for good performance.

• Case study approach dominated with 2 lengthy case studies - one from Returns to Scale (3 numerical + 1 theory question) and another from National Income concepts.

• Microeconomics featured 4 questions from Average Revenue and Marginal Revenue graphs with 2 numerical problems, while production graph and autonomous consumption concepts were also tested.

• Market structures had contrasting difficulty levels with 4 very easy questions from market competition, providing scoring opportunities for well-prepared students.

• Macroeconomics covered stock and flow concepts through multiple question types, requiring clear understanding of national income accounting principles.

13th May (Shift 1)

• The Biology paper was NCERT-based with moderate difficulty, emphasizing conceptual clarity over complex applications, suitable for students strong in fundamentals.
  
  

• Key topics included Mendelian disorders, chromosomal abnormalities, polygenic inheritance, and detailed molecular biology concepts like transcription and translation.
  
  

• Biodiversity and conservation were assessed through passages on ex-situ and in-situ methods, while applied biology topics covered biogas plants and double fertilization.
  
  

• Evolution and biotechnology (EcoRI enzyme) questions enriched the syllabus coverage.

13th May (Shift 2)

• Human Physiology questions focused on digestion, respiration, and circulation with mostly direct, factual queries for easy recall.
  
  

• Genetics and Evolution included numerical problems based on Mendelian ratios, while Ecology and Environment questions were straightforward.
  
  

• Plant Physiology (photosynthesis, mineral nutrition) and Biotechnology topics appeared with moderate to easy difficulty.
  
  

• Overall, the paper was easy to moderate with a strong emphasis on NCERT syllabus sufficiency.

14th May (Shift 1)

• The paper was easy to moderate difficulty, mainly NCERT-based, focusing on immunity and lymphoid organs.
  
  

• Key topics: Primary and Secondary Lymphoid Organs, Active vs Passive Immunity, B-lymphocytes, T-lymphocytes, and antibody types (IgA, IgG, IgM).
  
  

• Questions included immunological barriers, vaccination principles, autoimmune and immunodeficiency disorders, and antigen-antibody interactions.
  
  

• Mostly factual and matching-type questions, making NCERT preparation crucial for scoring well.

14th May (Shift 2)

• The Biology paper was very easy, making it one of the most scoring sections in the CUET UG syllabus.
  
  

• Most students attempted all 50 questions confidently due to direct, straightforward, and fully NCERT-aligned content.
  
  

• No out-of-syllabus or tricky application questions appeared; focus was purely on core NCERT concepts.
  
  

• Memory-based questions covered high-yield topics like seed dormancy hormones, plant hormone functions, placenta’s role, DNA replication enzymes, and stages of human reproduction.
  
  

• This NCERT-based paper provided an excellent opportunity for aspirants to score well through focused revision.

15th May (Shift 1)

• Easy and straightforward CUET Biology questions on Population Pyramid assessing demographic and age-structure interpretation.

• Important genetics topic tested through the Lac Operon Model question focused on gene regulation mechanisms in prokaryotic cells.

• Human immunology question on AIDS virus targeting CD4+ T cells, emphasizing viral infection and immune response.

• Detailed reproductive biology question on Oogenesis and arrest phase during meiosis, focusing on diplotene stage of prophase I.

• Ecology-related question on Pisces starfish feeding behavior, specifically on removal of bivalves like clams during feeding.

• Contraceptive biology questions covered Hormone-releasing Intrauterine Devices (IUDs) and their biological mechanisms.

• Hormonal regulation tested via questions on hormones present in contraceptive pills and their role in birth control.

15th May (Shift 2)

• Reproduction and Fertilization section included questions on fruit formation without fertilization and calculation-based fertilization rates in populations.

• Genetics questions tested basic concepts including Mendelian inheritance laws and common gene disorders.

• Direct questions on human genetic disorders and inheritance patterns focused on diseases and their genetic basis.

• Ecology topic covered with a question on the Species-Area Curve and biodiversity relationship, vital for environmental studies.

• Situational question on brood parasitism of Cuckoo birds laying eggs in Crow nests, testing ecological interactions.

• Human reproduction section had detailed questions on sperm pathway through testicular lobules and hormonal cycles in menstruation involving FSH, LH, Estrogen, and Progesterone.

• Enzyme function questions included the role of DNA ligase enzyme used in DNA strand joining.

• Contraceptive methods tested through questions on Intrauterine Contraceptive Devices (IUCDs) and female birth control methods.

• Match-the-columns questions (5 in total) covered diverse biology topics like enzymes, hormones, reproductive organs, diseases, and ecology terms.

• Two comprehension passages were included: one focused on biodiversity conservation, the other on diseases and medicines.

16th May (Shift 1)

• Evolution questions on jawless fishes were consistently asked.

• Plant Physiology was tested with questions on albuminous vs. non-albuminous seeds.

• A conceptual question on antibiotics reinforced human health knowledge.

• Amniocentesis related question evaluated understanding of prenatal diagnosis.

• Trichoderma, an ecologically significant fungal genus, featured in applied biology.

• Crygene-based passage tested comprehension and real-life application skills.

16th May (Shift 2)

• The CUET 2025 Biology exam (16th May, Shift 2) was rated easy to moderate by most students, with questions predominantly derived from NCERT textbooks.

• Key topics included Human Physiology, Genetics, Biotechnology, and Ecology, which were given significant weightage.

• Several questions involved diagrams and flowcharts, assessing students’ ability to recall and interpret visual data accurately.

• The section featured Assertion-Reason type questions, testing the conceptual understanding and application of Biology in real-life contexts.

• A considerable number of direct factual questions focused on testing rote learning and thorough NCERT revision.

• Some questions required applying biological concepts to environmental and societal issues, promoting analytical thinking.

• Overall, students who had prepared well with NCERT Biology found the paper manageable and scoring.

20 May (Shift 1)

• Overall Difficulty Level: Easy

• Most students were able to attempt more than 45 questions confidently due to the familiarity and simplicity of the topics.

• Ecology and Environment topics dominated the paper with questions on sacred groves, productivity units, bell-shaped pyramids, and ecosystem-based paragraphs.

• The Rivet Popper Hypothesis was directly asked from the ecology section.

20 May (Shift 2)

• The Biology paper was very easy according to student feedback.

• All questions were based entirely on the NCERT syllabus.

• Main topics included Human Physiology, Genetics and Evolution, and Plant Physiology.

• No surprise or tricky questions were reported.

• The paper mainly consisted of one-liner factual questions.

• There were no analytical or diagram-based questions.

• The paper was high-scoring for those thorough with NCERT.

22 May (Shift 1)

• The overall difficulty level of the Biology paper was easy to moderate.

• The paper included a passage-based question format, similar to the one used in Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics sections.

• A question was asked from the chapter Microbes in Human Welfare, focusing on their role in industrial and medical applications.

• Human Evolution was tested through a direct factual question related to evolutionary concepts.

• Placenta-related hormones were part of the reproductive biology questions, emphasizing endocrine functions.

• A question based on the Vidal Test was included, checking students’ knowledge of disease diagnostics.

• One of the questions involved sequence arrangement, likely testing understanding of processes or classification in genetics or evolution.

• Overall, the questions were NCERT-based, with a mix of factual recall and conceptual understanding.

22 May (Shift 2)

• The Biology section was easy and highly scoring.

• Questions were mostly NCERT-based, covering topics like seed dormancy, plant hormones, placenta, DNA replication enzymes, and stages of human reproduction.

23 May (Shift 2)

• The paper was rated easy by most students.

• A question asked who coined the term 'biodiversity', testing terminology.

• Conceptual questions appeared from metagenesis and identification of STDs.

• A paragraph-based question came from the topic of antibiotics.

• A sequencing question on gel electrophoresis was included.

• Students were asked about the chromosome number of male honey bees.

• A question required arranging the pollen grain developmental stages in sequence

26 May (Shift 2)

• One question was asked on the structure of the embryo sac (female gametophyte in flowering plants).

• A match-the-following question tested knowledge of hormone-releasing intrauterine devices.

• A direct question was asked on Gamete Intra-Fallopian Transfer (GIFT).

• Spermatogenesis was covered with a question on the process of sperm formation.

• A concept-based question on test cross appeared under genetics.

• Gel electrophoresis was assessed with a question involving DNA sequence arrangement.

• The Bt gene Cry1Ab featured in a question on genetically modified crops.

27th May
(Shift 2)

• The paper was easy.

• Questions were asked from human reproduction, including male accessory glands, menstrual cycle, and spermatogenesis.

• Questions were asked from reproductive health topics such as MTP, IVF, and IUDs.

• A question was asked from genetics about prototrophism and incomplete dominance.

• A question was asked about equivalent genetic material.

• A question on autosomal recessive disease was asked.

• A question was asked about nucleosides.

• A question from transcription units was asked.

• A question from the topic of evolution and the geological time scale was asked.

• A question from the chapter on human health and disease, specifically related to HIV, was asked.

• A question related to biotechnology on ECOR1 was asked.

• A question was asked on the first recombinant DNA (rDNA) experiment.

• A question was asked about gene therapy.

• The full form of GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee) was asked.

• A question on exponential population growth was asked from ecology.

• A question on population interactions was asked.

• A question about Lindemann’s law was asked.

28th May (Shift 1)

• The overall difficulty level was Easy, making it highly accessible for most candidates.

• The disease chapter contributed significantly with questions focused on Barrier Method concepts.

• Malaria Cycle questions tested understanding of the complete life cycle and transmission patterns.

• HIV-related questions appeared in a sequence format, requiring knowledge of viral progression stages.

• Human Evolution topics were presented in a matching format under the broader Evolution chapter.

• The microbes chapter included questions on STP (Sewage Treatment Plant) processes and applications.

• Male Accessory Ducts were specifically tested, focusing on anatomical structure and functions.

Moderate Level | NCERT-Aligned, with Paragraph and Statement-Based MCQs

• In-situ and ex-situ conservation were again tested, continuing the trend.

• A question on Hershey-Chase experiment steps was included.

• A paragraph-based question came from biotechnology principles.

• Human health and disease included barrier methods via a paragraph.

• The definition of ecological niche was directly asked.

• Antigen-antibody interaction was a straightforward conceptual question.

• Microbes in human welfare had a match-the-following type question.

• A menstrual cycle phase-based question was asked.

• Spermatogenesis involved a statement-based MCQ.

• Fertilization included an acrosome-related question.

• Hormone-releasing IUDs (IVPs) were tested conceptually.

• Biodiversity summit date was included in a factual question.

13th May (Shift 1)

• The paper was rated easy to moderate difficulty, primarily based on the NCERT Accountancy syllabus and previous years’ question patterns.
  
  

• The compulsory inclusion of Computerized Accounting raised concerns about potential marks deduction and exam strategy among students.
  
  

• Key topics included partnership accounts, company accounts, and cash flow statements, with questions testing conceptual clarity via slightly modified previous year’s formats.

13th May (Shift 2)

• Partnership Firms questions focused on goodwill valuation, partner reconstitution, and retirement, assessing core partnership accounting concepts.
  
  

• Company Accounts covered share capital, debentures, and share issuance, closely aligned with the key syllabus areas.
  
  

• Financial Statement Analysis included ratio analysis, cash flow statements, and comparative statements, emphasizing practical application skills.
  
  

• Depreciation and Reserves involved numerical problems requiring accuracy and solid understanding of accounting principles.
  
  

• Non-Profit Organisation topics addressed income-expenditure and receipts-payment accounts, reflecting real-world accounting scenarios.
  
  

• Overall, the paper was moderately difficult, demanding precision and thorough practice for good scoring.

14th May (Shift 1)

• The paper balanced theory and numerical questions at a moderate difficulty level.
  
  

• Approximately 10–12 numericals focused on Goodwill Valuation using Super Profit, Net Profit, and Capitalisation Methods.
  
  

• Ratio Analysis included 6 to 8 questions, many lengthy and calculation-heavy, requiring careful interpretation.
  
  

• Cash Flow Statement questions covered operating and financing activities, along with partnership and computerized accounting topics.

15th May (Shift 1)

• The paper maintained an easy to moderate difficulty level, allowing most students to comfortably attempt all 50 questions.

• Computerized Accounting featured 3 straightforward questions, considerably easier compared to earlier shifts.

• Five case study questions on Partner’s Guarantee tested practical applications of partnership accounts, focusing on real-world scenarios.

• Notably, no Assertion-Reason type questions appeared in this shift, shifting focus entirely to theory and numericals.

• Around 20 theory-based questions directly aligned with the NCERT syllabus, ensuring predictable content for prepared candidates.

• Fundamentals of Partnership held prominent weightage, with 4 theory questions and 1 practical case study scenario.

• Numerical case studies on Shares and Debentures addressed topics like issue, forfeiture, and reissue of shares, assessing conceptual clarity.

• Ratio Analysis questions involved application-based numericals on Fixed Asset Ratio, Net Turnover Ratio, Net Asset Ratio, and Capital Employed Ratio.

• Cash Flow Statements included both theory questions and numericals, testing students' analytical and interpretation skills.

16th May (Shift 1)

• Financial Statement-related questions were direct but time-consuming, testing detailed understanding of preparation formats.

• Core topics like Share Capital and Final Accounts had multiple questions each (approx. 4–5 questions).

• Cash Flow Statement numericals and theory questions appeared consistently, requiring thorough practice.

• Key concepts from Partnership Appropriation and Partnership Act provisions were repeatedly asked across different shifts.

• Reconstitution topics including Retirement of a Partner, Revaluation of Assets, and Profit-Sharing Adjustments featured prominently.

• Adjustments in the Profit & Loss Account involved tricky questions, demanding careful calculation.

• Accounting Ratios tested fundamental understanding through conceptual numericals, though they were manageable.

• 6 -7 questions combined from Redressal Mechanisms and Revaluation Accounts, testing both application and theory.

• Comprehensive case studies challenged students with integrated accounting problems, focusing on multi-concept application.

16th May (Shift 2)

• The paper was moderate in difficulty with a heavier focus on practical numericals.

• Partnership Accounts and Company Accounts were the major areas covered.

• Numerical questions included Journal Entries, Ledger Balances, and Cash Flow Statements.

• Assertion-Reason questions assessed conceptual clarity in topics like Revaluation and Share Capital.

• Case study numericals tested application and problem-solving under time constraints.

• Theoretical questions were direct but tested attention to fine details.

• Students found the paper slightly lengthy but doable with good practice.

22 May (Shift 1)

• Paper was reported to be easy overall.

• No case-study based questions were included, which surprised many students.

• Focus was on theory-based direct questions.

• NTA followed its latest pattern of asking students to select between Computerized Accounting and Financial Analysis before beginning the test.

• Questions were concept-based and familiar to most students.

• Internal choices were seen in unit-based sections.

22 May (Shift 2)

• The Accountancy paper had no internal choice; questions were to be attempted unit-wise.

• Five questions were from financial statements, including matching type questions.

• No case study questions were present in this shift.

• Numerical questions made up only about 10% of the paper and were easy.

• Topics included goodwill, profit sharing ratio, and dissolution.

• Four to five questions were from match-the-following type.

• Theory questions mainly focused on shares and related accounting concepts.

24 May (Shift 2)

• The paper was rated as moderate, with a few questions requiring analytical thinking.

• Topics included Partnership Accounts, Company Accounts, and Financial Statements Analysis.

• A few numerical questions required stepwise calculation, but were not lengthy.

• Concept-based theory questions were included from Accounting Ratios, Cash Flow Statement, and Reconstitution of Partnership.

• Some students found MCQs on accounting entries slightly confusing due to similar options.

• The majority of questions were aligned with NCERT, though a few questions needed in-depth understanding.

• The paper was Easy to Moderate level with Partnership accounts dominating through 8-10 questions from Realisation Accounts, making it the highest scoring section for prepared students.

• Company Law featured prominently with Section 464 of Companies Act 2013 and 8-10 MCQs on Debentures, testing both theoretical and legal knowledge.

• Goodwill calculations appeared in 2 questions covering Super Profit method (reverse calculation) and Number of Years Purchase method, requiring formula-based problem solving.

• Share capital topics included forfeiture & reissue, calls-in-advance percentage, and calls-in-arrear concepts, testing practical accounting procedures.

• Financial statement analysis was covered through S/G ratio, solvency ratios, and Cash Flow Statement activities matching, emphasizing analytical skills.

• Sequence-based questions on the dissolution process and matching questions on types of debentures tested systematic understanding of accounting procedures.

• Paper was easy to moderate

• Theory and Numerical had equal weightage

• Question was asked on Partnership – Gaining Ratio, Sacrificing Ratio

• Question was asked on Admission of a Partner

• Question was asked from Fundamentals – Sequence and Match the Column

• Question was asked on Goodwill Calculation

• Question was asked on Share Capital

• Question was asked from Accounting Ratio

• The paper was easy level with more emphasis on theoretical concepts rather than complex numerical calculations, making it accessible for concept-focused preparation.

• Partnership accounts featured questions on partnership deed, fixed vs fluctuating capital theory, interest on drawings calculations, and gaining/sacrificing ratios (2-3 questions).

• Goodwill section included numerical problems on capitalization of average profit method and formula selection questions, testing both calculation and theoretical knowledge.

• Company accounts covered share capital topics through 3-4 questions on forfeiture procedures and relevant sections, while debentures appeared in 2 MCQs.

• Dissolution and admission topics were represented through Section 39 theory, realisation account entries, and profit distribution concepts.

13th May (Shift 1)

• The CUET 2025 Physics question paper consisted of approximately 60% numerical and 40% theory questions, making it calculation-heavy and demanding strong problem-solving skills.
  
  

• Key topics included Atoms, Nuclear Physics, Optics, and Current Electricity, featuring several tricky multi-step numerical problems.
  
  

• The difficulty was moderate, requiring conceptual clarity and application beyond simple formula recall.
  
  

• Effective time management was essential due to lengthy calculations and the need for accuracy under exam pressure.

13th May (Shift 2)

• The physics paper had a moderate difficulty level, focusing on Mechanics with conceptual questions on laws of motion and work-energy-power.
  
  

• Electrostatics and Current Electricity combined numerical and theoretical problems, testing calculation skills and conceptual understanding.
  
  

• Optics questions involved ray diagrams and lens formulas, rated moderate in difficulty.
  
  

• Modern Physics included factual questions on the photoelectric effect and nuclear physics; Thermodynamics and Heat Transfer had tricky formula-based questions.
  
  

• Semiconductors and Communication Systems were mostly direct theory-based, requiring clear conceptual knowledge.
  
  

• Overall, the paper balanced conceptual clarity with time-consuming numericals, emphasizing accuracy and speed.

14th May (Shift 2)

• Rated moderate to difficult, the paper challenged students’ conceptual clarity and deep theoretical understanding aligned with the CUET Physics syllabus.
  
  

• Students attempted around 37 questions confidently, with some multi-step numericals being time-consuming and requiring strong problem-solving skills.
  
  

• The paper focused on conceptual, theory-heavy questions rather than direct formula application, testing detailed understanding of fundamental physics principles.
  
  

• Memory-based questions included matching wavelengths with visible light colors, Total Internal Reflection (TIR) applications, and multiple questions on the de Broglie equation highlighting wave-particle duality.

15th May (Shift 2)

• The difficulty level was moderate to difficult.

• Many questions were directly taken from previous year question papers.

• The paper included a mix of numerical and theoretical questions.

• A significant number of questions were asked from Current Electricity (Book 1)

• Ray Optics was another frequently tested topic, with questions on Telescope and Microscope concepts.

16th May (Shift 2)

• The overall paper was moderate in difficulty, with numericals dominating the section.

• Topics like Current Electricity, Modern Physics, Semiconductor, and Optics were frequently asked.

• Numerical questions tested concepts of Work, Power, Energy, and Laws of Motion.

• Assertion-Reason questions were conceptual and required careful interpretation.

• Direct formula-based questions were present but needed precise calculations.

• Some application-based questions were framed around real-life physics scenarios.

• Time management was essential due to the calculative nature of numericals.

19 May (Shift 1)

Overall Level: Moderate

• The paper consisted mostly of numerical questions.

• Very few questions were from Modern Physics.

• Numericals were easy to attempt and not lengthy.

• Questions were concept-based and calculative.

• Most students attempted 46–49 questions confidently.

20 May (Shift 2)

• The overall difficulty level of the Physics paper was moderate to tough.

• Questions were largely conceptual and directly based on the NCERT textbook.

• Many questions required formula-based application in numerical problems.

• Frequently asked topics included Current Electricity, Electromagnetic Induction, and Thermodynamics.

21 May (Shift 1)

Difficulty Level: Easy to Moderate

• Around 8 to 12 questions were numerical and primarily formula-based.

• Several theory questions involved ratio-based or statement-based reasoning.

• A direct question from Electromagnetic Induction tested the EMF equation.

• Current Electricity questions included topics like equivalent resistance and current density.

• Capacitance-related questions focused on series/parallel ratios and basic definitions.

• Definitions and examples of potential energy were covered under Work, Energy & Power.

21 May (Shift 2)

• The Physics section featured a heavy emphasis on numericals, with nearly 18 to 20 calculation-based questions.

• While most numericals were direct and formula-driven, a few demanded deeper conceptual understanding.

• Topics like Magnetism, Electrostatics, and Semiconductors were highly represented.

• Some of the tougher problems involved magnetic force calculations among multiple current-carrying wires.

• A notable question asked students to analyze the force interactions when a third wire was placed between two parallel wires.

• Many candidates found the section lengthy, largely due to the time required for solving numericals.

Overall, the difficulty level leaned towards moderate to tough, especially for those not comfortable with numericals.

22 May (Shift 1)

• Overall difficulty level was moderate, slightly higher than Chemistry.

• Questions required conceptual clarity; many involved application-based problem-solving.

• A few numericals were tricky and time-consuming.

• Some questions covered Electrostatics, Current Electricity, and Optics.

• A few assertion-reason type questions were included.

• Students attempted fewer questions here compared to Chemistry.

• Many felt time management was challenging due to conceptual depth.

23 May (Shift 1)

• All questions were directly taken from or closely based on NCERT textbooks.

• Conceptual clarity was more important than numerical solving skills.

• The questions tested basic principles and theoretical understanding.

23 May (Shift 2)

• The difficulty level was easy, with a heavy focus on numerical questions.

• Most students attempted around 40-45 questions confidently.

• Several questions were statement-based, requiring concept clarity.

• Around 15 questions were full numericals, testing calculation skills.

• Approximately 135 questions were based on theoretical concepts.

• 6-7 questions came from the semiconductors chapter.

• All questions were largely NCERT-based, reinforcing the importance of the textbook.

27 May
(Shift 2)

• The paper was of easy to moderate level.

• Numerical questions were more conceptual in nature.

• Conceptual questions were asked from current electricity, modern physics, and wave optics.

• A question related to resistivity was asked from current electricity.

• A question was asked on cell combination.

• A question on threshold frequency was asked from modern physics.

• A question on the electric field and force due to a point charge was asked.

• Between questions 13–19, more questions were asked from modern physics.

• In some papers, ray optics had more weightage.

• The electrostatic potential section could be dominating in upcoming papers.

28th May
(Shift 2)

• Graph-related question was asked

• Paper was easy to moderate

• From EPC, 5 to 6 questions were asked

• From MCM, 5 to 6 questions were asked

• No question from magnetism and matter

• No question from microscope, telescope, and prism

• Semiconductor-based question came

• Paper was easy to moderate

• Students attempted around 35–40 questions on average

• Very few questions were asked from Modern Physics

• More questions were asked from Ray Optics

• Question was asked from Moving Charges and Magnetism

• 10–12 questions were direct formula-based

13th May (Shift 1)

• The CUET 2025 Business studies question paper was predominantly NCERT-based, focusing on core topics like Principles of Management, Business Environment, and Marketing.
  
  

• Previous Year Questions (PYQs) appeared with slight modifications, testing students’ conceptual clarity through altered case studies.
  
  

• Difficulty level was easy to moderate, emphasizing real-life applications rather than complex problem-solving.
  
  

• Case study questions were straightforward, aimed at assessing basic understanding rather than tricky scenarios.

13th May (Shift 2)

• The paper was focused on direct NCERT-based questions and rated easy in difficulty.
  
  

• Theory-based questions covered Principles of Management (Fayol, Taylor) and Functions of Management fundamentals.
  
  

• Marketing Management included product mix, pricing strategies, and promotion techniques.
  
  

• Financial Management tested concepts like capital structure and financial planning, while HRM focused on staffing, recruitment, and training.
  
  

• Business Environment and case studies assessed practical application of management concepts.

14th May (Shift 1)

• The paper had a moderate difficulty level, centered on core management principles.
  
  

• Principles of Management included 4 questions on Unity of Command, Unity of Direction, and Order.
  
  

• Functions of Management featured key processes such as Planning and Staffing, with one question each.
  
  

• A passage-based question on Levels of Management included 5–6 questions testing conceptual and practical understanding.
  
  

• Overall, it emphasized NCERT-based management concepts balancing theory and application.

14th May (Shift 2)

• The CUET 2025 Business Studies exam for 14th May Shift 2 was reported as easy to moderate by students, making it relatively scoring.

• Core topics like Controlling, Organising, Entrepreneurship, Divisional Organisation, and Principles of Management formed the majority of the questions.

• Repeated questions from past CUET papers (at least four) were seen, giving an edge to students who revised previous year trends.

• The paper largely followed the NCERT syllabus without any surprises, maintaining a predictable yet comprehensive approach.

15th May (Shift 1)

• For CUET 2025 Business Studies 15th May Shift 1, students found the paper balanced and moderate, with high weightage to application-based questions.

• Case studies included a detailed scenario on Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs and another on Financial Management, checking practical understanding.

• The Entrepreneurship Development unit contributed 2 straightforward questions, focusing on basic terminologies.

• No Assertion-Reason type questions appeared in this shift, making it more direct.

• Most well-prepared candidates could easily attempt 40 - 45 questions with accuracy, thanks to the NCERT-aligned questions.

• A few conceptual questions (3–4 in number) demanded deeper understanding, but overall, the paper remained student-friendly.

16th May (Shift 1)

• The CUET 2025 Business Studies paper on 16th May (Shift 1) was structured with a mix of fact-based questions and conceptual clarity testers.

• Important chapters like Business Environment, Training, Staffing, Maslow’s Motivation Theory, and Fayol’s Principles of Management featured prominently.

• Financial topics, especially Capital Structure and Financial Leverage, had more weightage with conceptual numericals and definitions.

• Branding, Advertising, and Marketing Strategies questions focused on real-life business applications, adding practical relevance.

• Current business trends such as Demonetization and Privatization were covered through around 5 direct questions.

• Questions from Leadership Styles, Motivation Theories, Recruitment, Planning, Decentralization, and Consumer Rights ensured syllabus-wide coverage.

• The paper maintained a well-rounded balance between theory, application, and emerging business topics, making this shift moderately challenging yet manageable.

16th May (Shift 2)

• The difficulty was moderate, with a mix of direct and case-study based questions.

• Principles of Management, Marketing, and Financial Management were key topics.

• Assertion-Reason questions required detailed conceptual knowledge.

• Case studies were lengthy but based on NCERT concepts, making them solvable.

• Application-based questions tested the practical understanding of business concepts.

• Questions with similar answer options demanded precise reading.

• The paper was well-balanced for students with good theoretical preparation.

22 May (Shift 1)

• The level of difficulty was easy to moderate.

• Like Accountancy, case study questions were mostly missing or minimal.

• Majority of questions were direct and fact-based, making it scoring for well-prepared students.

• Topics covered included Principles of Management, Planning, and Marketing.

• Students reported no surprises or deviation from expected patterns.

22 May (Shift 2)

• The Business Studies section had 40–45 questions and was easy.

• A question asked under which theory “Jago Grahak Jago” falls.

• Numerical questions were included from Financial Management.

• Basic theory questions covered important topics such as sequences, processes, and functions of management.

• Two questions were from Consumer Protection laws and related topics.

24 May (Shift 2)

• Paper was reported to be easy to moderate, with many direct NCERT questions.

• Case-based questions were present but not too lengthy or difficult.

• Topics like Principles of Management, Staffing, Marketing, and Financial Management were covered.

• A few tricky questions were asked from controlling and business environment.

• Most students found it time-manageable and scoring.

• Some opinion-based or application-oriented questions required conceptual clarity.

• Most students completed the paper with time to spare.

• The paper was easy level with principles of management dominating through case study questions, making theoretical understanding crucial for scoring well.

• Management functions were tested through arrangement questions covering organizing, staffing, and coordination processes in logical sequence.

• Business strategy appeared through diversification case study questions, requiring analytical application of growth and expansion concepts.

• Marketing section featured questions from marketing mix, physical distribution, and sales promotion in MCQ format, testing practical marketing knowledge.

• Business environment concepts were covered through matching type questions, requiring knowledge of micro and macro environmental factors.

13th May (Shift 1)

• CUET 2025 Physical Education paper had medium difficulty, mainly based on NCERT concepts like health & fitness, yoga, and biomechanics.
  
  

• It tested both theoretical knowledge and practical application related to sports training principles.
  
  

• The paper was straightforward with no tricky questions, making it fair for well-prepared students.
  
  

• Time management was easy, with most students completing the exam comfortably within the allotted time.

14th May (Shift 2)

• The CUET 2025 History exam was considered very easy, allowing students to score well with basic NCERT preparation.

• A large chunk of the questions were fact- based, with about 15 direct recall one-liners.

• The Medieval Indian History section received maximum focus, featuring questions on dynasties, movements, and key historical events.

• No complex analytical or interpretation based questions were present, making it a straightforward paper.

• Overall, the paper aligned closely with NCERT syllabus patterns, favoring well-prepared students.

15th May (Shift 1)

• The CUET 2025 History question paper was rated very easy, ideal for students with thorough NCERT History syllabus revision.
  
  

• Most questions were direct and factual, including around 15 one-liner questions on important historical events and dates.

• A significant focus was on the Medieval Period of Indian history, covering key dynasties, socio-political movements, and cultural aspects.

• Strong alignment with the CUET History syllabus and NCERT textbooks made the paper manageable and scoring for NCERT section.
  
  

• The paper emphasized core NCERT topics, ensuring familiarity and ease for well-prepared candidates.

15th May (Shift 2)

• Harappan Civilization was a core focus, with 5 detailed questions on urban planning, important sites, and cultural artifacts.

• Buddhism featured with 2 questions testing knowledge of its teachings and historical development.

• Significant emphasis on ancient Indian literature, with multiple questions on Buddhist texts and Sanskrit sources.

• The Mughal Era was tested with a question related to administrative structures or prominent emperors.

• A direct question appeared on the Zamindari system during the Mughal and colonial periods.

• Students faced comprehension-based questions on topics like the Non-Cooperation Movement and 17th-century India.

• The Bhakti movement was revisited through 2 questions, checking familiarity with saints and their philosophies.

• Other notable factual questions tested knowledge about personalities like Marichi and Mahasamtha.

• The overall paper maintained an NCERT-centric approach with no out-of-syllabus surprises.

16th May (Shift 1)

• Heavy focus was observed on Theme 1 (Chapter 4) of the History curriculum, reflecting the importance of foundational topics.

• Two key reading comprehension passages were included— one centered on Mahatma Gandhi’s movements and another on Constitution-making in India.

• Students had to sequence historical events chronologically, covering diverse periods from ancient to modern Indian history.

• Conceptual questions like “Choose the correct option” and “Find the odd one out” were included to test deeper understanding.

• Theme 2 contributions included a question on the Vairashaiva movement, indicating attention to lesser-highlighted topics.

• The Vijayanagar Empire was tested with questions asking identification of temples based on textual descriptions (not visual images).

• A factual question from Ain-i-Akbari assessed students’ knowledge of Mughal administrative documentation.

• Theme 3-based questions explored statements from British colonial administrators, focusing on chronological arrangement.

• Despite sticking to the NCERT framework, the exam demanded accuracy in dates, sequences, and conceptual clarity.

19th May (Shift 1)

The paper was of moderate difficulty.

• 2–3 questions were based on the history of Rajasthan.

• 2–3 questions appeared to be out of syllabus.

• One question dealt with constitutional protection of religious security.

• 2–3 questions came from the chapter on inscriptions.

• One question was from Harappan archaeology.

• One MCQ was based on the Mahabharata.

• A chronology-based question was asked from the Sanchi Stupa topic.

• One question covered the Hampi heritage site.

• A “match the following” question appeared from the traveller’s account chapter.

• Five passage-based questions were asked from the 1857 Revolt chapter, one included a painting.

• One question was related to Mahatma Gandhi.

• One question was based on the Making of the Constitution.

20 May (Shift 1)

• Overall Difficulty Level: Easy to Moderate

• The paper had a balanced mix of questions from ancient, medieval, and modern history.

• Most questions were factual and direct, requiring less interpretation and more memorization.

• Topics covered included nationalism, colonial policies, and cultural history.

• Chronological arrangement and thematic identification were tested in a few questions.

20 May (Shift 2)

• The overall difficulty level of the History paper was moderate, with a few questions based on chronology and dates being tough.

• Harappan Civilization had high weightage with both factual and concept-based questions.

• Questions from the Mauryan Dynasty focused on chronology and administrative policies.

• The section on Framing of the Constitution included questions based on key dates and important events.

• Ashoka’s Dhamma policy was covered through paragraph-based questions, with terms like “Dhamma Mahamatta” being used.

22 May (Shift 2)

• History was moderate to difficult.

• Some questions repeated from previous years’ papers.

• Questions on Hazara Ram Mandir location, Mahatma Gandhi’s movements, and the Mahabharata.

• Included questions on Harappa’s seal.

• New NCERT-based and picture-based questions were also part of the paper.

23 May (Shift 1)

• Most of the questions were repeated from previous CUET papers.

• The content was heavily based on NCERT and standard textbooks.

• One question was related to Asoka Nadan, testing ancient history knowledge.

• Another question focused on the Vijayanagar Empire.

• There was a question based on paintings described as "in memorial."

• One question was related to the members or role of the Drafting Committee in the Constitution.

23 May (Shift 2)

• The overall difficulty level was easy with a significant number of repeated questions.

• Many questions were directly lifted from previous year papers.

• Several questions required answers in chronological order, testing students' timeline accuracy.

• One question asked about Panchama Marg coins—specifically, the metals they were made of.

• A direct question was asked about Mirabai being a devotee, indicating focus on Bhakti movement.

26 May (Shift 2)

• The section was considered easy by most students.

• One question asked for the meaning of "Pati Vedika".

• The Vijayanagar Empire featured in a direct factual question.

• A question tested knowledge about the Quit India Movement.

• “In Memoriam, Relief of Lucknow” (1859) was asked under painting and culture.

• A comparative history question looked at India vs. Europe.

• Chronology-based questions appeared from the Mahabharata period.

• One question asked about the Chairperson of the Drafting Committee (Dr. B. R. Ambedkar).

• Questions covered social practices like polygamy, monogamy, and heterogamy.

• Timeline-based history questions remained consistent with previous shifts.

• Matching-type questions tested source and text identification.

• Prayag Prashasti featured in a direct factual question.

• Mahabharata had a statement-based interpretation question.

• The language of Kitab-ul-Hind was included in a factual MCQ.

• The birthplace of Al-Biruni was asked as a one-liner question.

• The paper was well-structured with ancient history featuring Harappa Civilisation, Ch-2 Timeline on dynasties/lineages, and Buddha-related places through multiple choice questions.

• Medieval history covered traveller questions in chronological arrangement and Bhakti-Sufi tradition, while architectural questions included Stupa structure (top to bottom) and Sanchi Stupa 1989.

• Modern history emphasized constitutional development with case studies from Ch-13 Framing the Constitution and 3 direct questions on the constitutional framing process.

• Prominent personalities were covered through statement-based questions on Mahatma Gandhi and Chairman of Constituent Assembly identification.

• Two major case studies appeared - one from Constitution chapter and another from Quit India Movement, requiring analytical and comprehensive understanding.

• The paper balanced factual recall with analytical thinking through matching questions, case studies, and chronological arrangements across all historical periods

14th May (Shift 2)

• 
  
  Difficulty easy to moderate with simple MCQs, match-the-following, and arrangement type questions.

• Two passages with 5 questions each, covering humanisation of nature and determinism.

• Questions from Population, Human Settlement (multiple statements and matching), and Human Development.

• Single questions appeared on water resources and land resources.

15th May (Shift 2)

• 
  
  The difficulty level was easy to moderate.

• Questions came from topics like Big Inch Pipeline, Jhuming Cultivation, and Indian Ports (match the following).

• Descending order arrangement questions were asked, covering Population and Approaches.

• Concept-based questions were seen on HDI, Possibilism, and Tourism.

16th May (Shift 1)

Difficulty Level: Easy

• The CUET 2025 Geography paper was primarily NCERT-based, with 20 questions directly sourced from PYQs.

• Two passage-based questions featured:

  • First passage from Jhabua District, focusing on rural development and environmental concerns.

  • Second passage from Tertiary Activities, testing conceptual application.

• A chronological sequence question on different geographical approaches evaluated historical understanding.

• Match the following questions based on definitions and concepts were part of the objective section.

• New Determinism was highlighted with a direct question, indicating its potential recurrence in future shifts.

16th May (Shift 2)

• The Geography paper was of moderate difficulty, with a focus on both physical and human geography.

• Topics like Resources and Development, Population, Agriculture, and Transport were covered.

• Map-based questions tested identification and location skills.

• Assertion-Reason questions required analytical application of geographical concepts.

• Questions on contemporary environmental issues were present.

19 May (Shift 2)

• A question was asked related to international boundaries.

• A question focused on the Nepal-India border.

• One question mentioned a dam located in Karnataka.

• A cultural question was asked about traditional dance forms.

• A match-the-following question tested knowledge of soil types.

20 May (Shift 1)

• Overall Difficulty Level: Easy to Moderate

• A total of 46–50 questions were reported, with balanced coverage across physical, human, and Indian geography.

• One question was based on All India Radio, possibly linking communication networks with geography.

• Students had to arrange the approaches of Human Geography in chronological order.

• Population geography was tested with conceptual understanding rather than factual recall.

21 May (Shift 1)

• 5 questions based on Indian Railways passage.

• 5 questions on land resources (focused on classification and distribution)

• Chronological order question on the spread/origin of religions.

• Cropping seasons (Kharif, Rabi, Zaid) asked in a match-the-following format.

22 May (Shift 1)

• The Geography paper was rated easy to moderate and was considered quite predictable by most students.

• Two questions were based on the population chapter, including one on the population density formula and another on arranging countries by population size.

• A multiple-statement question was asked from the topic of Human Development, requiring careful reading and logical assessment.

• There was a match-the-following question involving Indian states and the languages spoken in those states.

• Another match-the-following type question appeared on international ports, checking awareness of trade and transport.

• A factual question was asked about radio as a means of communication.

• One of the questions focused on fallow land, testing basic agricultural geography knowledge.

• The paper closely followed NCERT themes and favored students who had prepared thoroughly from the textbook.

• The paper had balanced difficulty with matching questions from geographical approaches and regional studies like Jambia copper belt testing locational knowledge.

• Two passages covered contemporary topics - local petroleum resources and WTO impacts, requiring analytical reading and comprehension skills.

• Indian geography featured chronological arrangement of states by population and dam-related sequencing questions, testing factual recall and ordering ability.

• International geography included Mexico pipeline, Trans-Canadian railway arrangement, and quaternary sector questions, emphasizing global economic geography.

• Communication and trade topics appeared through barter system, radio/TV/satellite questions, and crop intensity concepts, covering diverse geographical themes.

16th May (Shift 1)

• The paper was aligned with students’ expectations and was considered less intimidating than in previous years.

• Paragraph-based unseen passage questions were straightforward and benefited students who practiced regularly with mock tests.

• Match-the-column type questions were very simple and helped students secure quick marks.

• The majority of the questions were from Agronomy, Horticulture, and Animal Husbandry, reflecting the core focus areas.

• There were 5 important questions in total from the main agriculture topics.

21st May (Shift 1)

• The overall difficulty level of the paper was easy to moderate, although a few questions were challenging.

• Questions were well-balanced across major topics: Agronomy, Animal Husbandry, Horticulture, and Biology.

• The paper emphasized conceptual clarity and reasoning rather than simple factual recall or rote learning.

• Two unseen passages were included, focusing on Kisan Credit Card and coconut-based government schemes.

• Application-based and analytical questions were present, requiring in-depth understanding of topics.

22 May (Shift 1)

• The overall difficulty level was easy to moderate, with questions mostly direct and based on factual knowledge.

• A significant number of questions were asked from Crop Production, focusing on major crops, their seasons, and climatic requirements.

• Topics from Soil Science such as types of soils and their suitability for crops were prominently featured.

• Questions on Irrigation methods, especially drip and sprinkler systems, were included.

• Animal Husbandry was covered through questions on breeds of cattle and poultry, and their characteristics.

• Students reported that the majority of questions were straight from NCERT Class 12 Agriculture textbooks.

• The paper had a balanced mix of questions from agricultural practices, fertilizers, and implements.

28 May (Shift 1)

• 
  The paper had a balanced mix of arrangement and matching type questions, making it manageable for well-prepared students.

• Arrangement questions on T-Budding process and Soil Decomposition tested systematic understanding of horticultural and soil science concepts.

• Match-the-column questions on variety matching and crop classification were straightforward and helped students secure quick marks.

• The majority of questions were from Horticulture and Soil Science, reflecting core agricultural focus areas.

• There were 4 important questions from Horticulture covering T-Budding, Tomato varieties, Papaya propagation, and multi-crop statements.

• Additionally, there were 2 questions on Animal Husbandry testing knowledge of livestock breeds and dairy productivity.

(20th May - Shift 1)

• Easy Level

• Mostly questions from NCERT

• Krishna Painting

• Nuruddin, 1683

• 5 Questions regarding Somnath Oray Children's Painting

• Foundation of Gwaliar Qila by babar ?

• Expected questions - Bengal Paintings,

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