Sharda University Admissions 2025
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CUET English 2025 Question Paper Analysis: The CUET 2025 English exam is a key component of the Common University Entrance Test (CUET) for undergraduate admissions to central and participating universities across India. Scheduled between May 13 and June 3, 2025, the English section plays a crucial role for students opting for language-intensive disciplines such as Humanities, Social Sciences, and Communication-based courses. While the exam is yet to be conducted, this article will be updated post-exam with a detailed CUET 2025 English Question Paper analysis. It will cover the section-wise question distribution, difficulty level, comprehension types, grammar concepts tested, and a comparison with previous year trends. Students can revisit this page after the exam for memory-based questions, student reactions, and expert insights.
Understanding the CUET 2025 exam pattern is essential for effective preparation and time management and in CUET 2025 English Question Paper Analysis. The section assesses a candidate’s overall command over the English language, focusing on reading comprehension, vocabulary, and grammar. The Exam Pattern of CUET 2025 is mentioned below:
Aspects | Details |
Conducting Body | National Testing Agency (NTA) |
Sections | I- Language II- Domain Specific III- General Aptitude |
Type of Question | Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) |
No. of Questions | 50 questions per section |
Duration | 60 minutes for each subject |
Marking Scheme | +5 marks for each correct answer -1 for each incorrect answer No marks for each unattempted question |
Maximum number of test papers | 5 test papers |
The CUET 2025 English Question Paper Analysis provides a detailed review of the question patterns, difficulty level, and important topics covered in the CUET English section. This comprehensive analysis highlights key areas such as reading comprehension passages, sentence rearrangement exercises, vocabulary questions including synonyms and antonyms, grammar focus points, and match-the-following types. Students preparing for the CUET English 2025 exam can use this insightful breakdown to understand the latest exam trends, identify frequently asked question types, and strategize their preparation effectively.
The paper was Moderate level with 3 reading comprehensions (5 questions each) - one from handicrafts and two story-based passages, providing balanced content for comprehension skills.
Sentence rearrangement had significant weightage with 7-8 questions, making logical sequencing crucial for scoring well in the exam.
Vocabulary section dominated with 12-13 synonyms/antonyms questions including words like "sagacious," testing extensive word knowledge and meaning understanding.
Language usage covered phrasal verbs with "Run" combinations, easy idioms, and fill-in-the-blanks from prepositions, requiring practical grammar application.
The paper emphasized vocabulary heavily while maintaining balanced coverage of comprehension and grammar, favoring students with strong word power and reading practice.
Overall difficulty was manageable for well-prepared students with consistent vocabulary building and comprehension practice.
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The paper was Easy to Moderate level with 3 reading comprehensions covering agriculture, narrative, and story-based passages, providing diverse content for comprehension skills.
Sentence rearrangement had significant weightage with 6-7 questions, making logical sequencing a crucial scoring area for prepared students.
Grammar section focused on practical applications through fill-in-the-blanks, preposition matching, and one present tense question, testing fundamental language rules.
Vocabulary was tested through 2-3 synonyms/antonyms (Ubiquitous, Abstruse, Eradicate), phrasal verb "Run into," and idiom "Castle in Air."
Specialized sections included unseen poetic passage, one word substitution (Graphology), and homophones (Aid, Aerial), requiring diverse English language skills.
The paper balanced comprehension, grammar, and vocabulary equally, favoring students with consistent reading practice and word knowledge.
The paper had balanced difficulty with 3 reading comprehension passages including one poetic passage, testing both direct and indirect comprehension skills.
Vocabulary section was extensive with synonyms/antonyms covering advanced words like versatile, desultory, fastidious, innocuous, impromptu, obscure, and piqued.
Idioms focused on commonly tested expressions like "at 11th hour," "burn one's boat," "curry favor," and "chip in," rewarding students with good phrase knowledge.
Phrasal verbs were heavily weighted with questions on "come" and "hold" combinations (come up with, come around, come under, hold back, hold off, held over).
One word substitution tested precise vocabulary with words like Ephemeral, Loquacious, Isthmus, and Neologist, requiring strong definitional knowledge.
Sentence rearrangement had significant weightage with 7-8 questions, making logical sequencing skills crucial for scoring.
Grammar section focused on prepositions (fill-in-the-blanks) and conjunctions (matching), testing fundamental English language rules.
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The paper was easy level with well-structured reading comprehension passages that were simple to understand and answer.
Reading comprehension dominated with 3 passages covering diverse topics - rainwater harvesting, Arjun's life struggle story, and railway-related content, making it scoring for regular readers.
Sentence rearrangement questions (4-5) were straightforward and rewarded students who practiced logical sequencing regularly.
Vocabulary section tested important words like Ephemeral, Frugal, Extravagant, Evanescent through synonyms and antonyms, requiring good word knowledge.
Idioms and phrases were from commonly used expressions like "Face the Music," "Under the Weather," and "Rolling Stone Gathers No Moss."
Phrasal verbs focused on basic combinations with "Put On," "Put Off," and "Rank Over," testing everyday English usage.
Grammar section had minimal weightage with 1-2 questions on fill-in-the-blanks and adverb identification, making vocabulary the key scoring area.
The overall difficulty level was Moderate, making it manageable for well-prepared candidates.
The English section featured 3 Reading Comprehension passages as the major component.
One RC passage was based on Sustainable Development, reflecting contemporary themes.
Another RC was Conversational in nature, testing understanding of dialogue-based content.
Sentence Arrangement questions dominated the paper, with 10-15 questions, forming a significant portion.
Synonyms and Antonyms were tested with moderately challenging words, including Assiduous, Ardent, and Prudent.
Homophones appeared with classic pairs like Cite-Site and Compliment-Complement, testing basic vocabulary distinctions.
Idiom questions included commonly used expressions such as "To put all eggs in one basket."
Phrasal Verbs were represented through everyday usage terms like Look up to, Turn up to, and Ran into.
The section level was easy overall.
There were 3 reading comprehension passages in total.
One RC passage was related to the human body and was story-based in format.
One RC passage was noted as difficult compared to the others.
Around 6-7 easy questions were asked about one-word substitution.
Match the following type of questions were included in the paper.
Vocabulary questions featured words such as "Benedict" and "valiant."
There were 1-2 questions on grammar topics.
Fill-in-the-blank questions were present, including contexts involving weather (raining).
The section was accessible for candidates with basic preparation.
The emphasis was on fundamental vocabulary and comprehension skills rather than complex grammatical concepts.
Overall Difficulty Level: Easy. Questions were as per the NCERT standards.
12 questions from Reading Comprehension (RC).
7–8 questions from Sentence Rearrangement (SR).
Vocabulary included words like: sagacious, disrupt, disparage.
Phrasal verbs related to 'get' were asked.
One RC was based on Ratan Tata.
From grammar, there were 12 questions based on verbs, and one question was from tenses.
One question from one-word substitution was about "killing brother" (the answer would be fratricide), and it was in a pair-based format, too.
The section level ranged from easy to moderate.
Antonyms such as “languish” and “conspicuous” were asked.
Synonyms included words like “ostentatious” and “precocious.”
Word-based questions included idioms, phrasal verbs, and one-word substitutions.
Grammar topics like adverbs and fixed prepositions were tested.
Around 10 questions were asked on sentence rearrangement for coherence.
There were 4 reading comprehension passages with 4 questions each.
Comprehension questions focused on inference, tone, vocabulary, and detail.
Overall emphasis was on vocabulary and usage rather than advanced grammar.
The section was straightforward for well-prepared candidates.
The overall difficulty level of the paper was easy to moderate.
The paper was relatively lengthy, with three comprehension passages.
Out of the three passages, two were easy and one was of moderate difficulty.
The first passage focused on the topic of women's Empowerment.
The second passage was a story-based passage.
The third passage dealt with the theme of Obesity.
The idioms section was easy to attempt.
There were about 12 to 15 rearrangement questions testing sentence ordering skills.
The paper included phrasal verbs such as “put off,” “give up,” and “take away.”
Grammar questions were mainly from articles, prepositions, and adverbs.
Questions on verb tenses and conjunctions were notably absent.
Vocabulary questions focused on synonyms and antonyms, with words like “denounce,” “industrious,” and “exotic.”
Overall Difficulty Level: Easy to Moderate; perceived as manageable by well-prepared students. Those who followed vocabulary sessions from May 13 to May 24 found many familiar questions.
Question Types:
Synonyms and Antonyms appeared frequently.
Vocabulary-based questions were dominant, with many words repeated from practice sessions.
Rearrangement of sentences (10–12 questions approx.) was a significant component.
Reading Comprehension (RC) passages were present but included indirect/inferential questions.
Idioms & Phrases: Examples included "be the hatch," "tooth and nail" (idiomatic usage).
One Word Substitution also featured prominently.
Important Vocabulary Areas:
Phrasal Verbs: Particularly around “cut,” “put,” “iron,” and “look” (e.g., cut down, put off, look through, iron out).
Homonyms and Homophones: Questions included pairs like principal/principle, bail/bale, wave/wave, stationary/stationery, censor/censure.
The paper included three comprehension passages, two of which were direct (based on Archaeology and Tea Plantation), and one was indirect.
There were around 9 to 10 questions based on sentence rearrangement, testing logical flow and coherence.
Phrasal verb questions focused on commonly used expressions like turn up and turn down.
Grammar-based fill-in-the-blanks tested knowledge of tenses, modal verbs, and adverbs.
Vocabulary questions were moderately difficult and included words such as dief, defy, current, and carent.
There were about 7 to 8 questions assessing vocabulary, including meanings and usage in context.
Four questions focused on synonyms and antonyms, one example being the pair nearest – closest.
One question tested understanding of the idiom gift of the gab, which means the ability to speak confidently and persuasively.
The English section was moderate in difficulty.
There were 3 reading comprehension passages, testing inference and understanding.
Around 10–12 questions required sentence rearrangement.
Vocabulary questions included synonyms/antonyms of words like:
Pedagogy
Palpable
Melancholy
Irrevocable
Grim
Sedition
An idiom-based question asked the meaning of "Slip of the Tongue".
Questions on phrasal verbs included Look into and Take away.
One question involved identifying a figure of speech, checking literary device knowledge.
The English paper followed the same pattern as previous shifts.
Questions were asked on Reading comprehension, Vocabulary, Synonyms-Antonyms, and Grammar.
The level was moderate and manageable for students with good reading skills.
Some questions required careful reading of long passages.
Focus areas: literary devices, author tone, and inference-based MCQs.
English was easy in difficulty.
Included 12 reading comprehension questions based on three passages: Chandrayaan, a conversation, and a story about a couple.
Sentence rearrangement questions were present.
Vocabulary tested through synonyms and antonyms, including words like luminous, mellifluous, penury, and lugubrious.
Idioms and phrases such as “Rome is not built in a day” appeared.
Questions on figures of speech, articles, and adverbs were included.
Grammar-Based Questions
Sentence correction and basic grammar rules were tested.
Reading Comprehension (RC)
Passages included factual content about ISRO, a narrative story, and a conversation-style piece.
Vocabulary
Synonyms and antonyms were asked for words like loquacious, pugnacious, truculent, and predilection.
A question was asked for the opposite of "stoic."
1–2 questions were on homophones.
1–2 questions tested one-word substitutions.
Idioms and phrases appeared in matching-type questions.
Sentence Rearrangement
About 10–12 questions require arranging sentences in logical order.
Phrasal Verbs
Two matching sets included phrasal verbs such as "back out" and "back off."
Figures of Speech
Although included in the syllabus, no direct question was asked on this topic.
English was slightly more challenging compared to earlier shifts, mainly due to the demanding vocabulary.
The section included two reading comprehension passages, one with 7 questions and another with 8 questions.
While the RC passages were manageable, vocabulary and grammar-based questions posed difficulty.
Questions based on literary devices like oxymoron and personification were included.
Idioms such as “take the bull by the horns” and “wear one’s heart on one’s sleeve” were also tested.
One-word substitution questions added another layer of complexity
The section was generally seen as moderate to difficult, especially for those less confident in vocabulary.
Overall Difficulty Level: Easy
Three Reading Comprehension passages were included, based on topics such as healthy food, a narrative story, and language and communication.
Around 10–12 questions were asked from Sentence Rearrangement, and most of them were considered doable.
Grammar was lightly covered with only 2 direct questions.
Phrasal verb questions featured common usages like "let in", "let out", "get up", and "get off".
Vocabulary-based questions included 6–8 synonym and antonym items in match-the-following format.
A single question on figures of speech was asked in a matching form.
Idioms appeared in 3–4 matching-type questions.
Words such as grisly, insinuate, and the antonym of resonate were included to test vocabulary depth.
English was an easy and scoring subject in this shift.
Reading Comprehensions were short and involved both factual and inference-based questions.
Vocabulary was tested through synonyms, antonyms, and identification of figures of speech.
Grammar-based questions included sentence rearrangement, fill-in-the-blanks, and error spotting.
Poetry-based questions featured literary devices like simile, metaphor, and oxymoron.
RC passages were manageable, allowing students to save time.
The section was considered highly scoring by most students.
The section was of a moderate difficulty level.
Passage 1 (Q1–4) was based on biodiversity.
Passage 2 (Q5–8) focused on the topic of language.
Passage 3 (Q9–12) was based on the Euro currency.
There were 4 questions on synonyms.
4 questions were asked on antonyms.
4 questions tested idiom usage.
8 questions were based on sentence rearrangement.
9 questions involved fill-in-the-blanks.
10 match-the-following questions included statements on verbs, proverbs, parts of speech, idioms, meanings, and homophones.
The difficulty level was mostly easy, with a few moderate-level questions.
Many students attempted over 45 questions due to the manageable level.
Option elimination was a useful strategy in solving trickier questions.
Reading Comprehension included 16 questions across multiple passages:
One based on a scientific report.
One on global warming.
Two conversation-based passages (Husband-Wife and Father-Daughter).
Sentence rearrangement questions were dominant, with 10–12 questions.
One question was asked on phrasal verbs.
One matching-type question was asked on Figures of Speech.
Idiom-based questions included: Break a Leg, Black Sheep, and Bad Egg.
Vocabulary questions tested meanings of words like Sccind, Truculent, Pugnacious, Genteel, and Disgruntle.
The English section was clearly divided into three main parts: Match the Following, Synonyms & Antonyms, and Sentence Rearrangement questions.
Match the Following idioms, one-word substitutions, and fill in blanks with suitable adverbs or verbs.
Sentence rearrangement questions formed the bulk of the paper and were mostly easy to solve.
Comprehension passages were narrative and literal, making the reading section accessible and straightforward.
Synonym and antonym questions were present, with slightly higher difficulty on synonyms.
There were no questions from foreign word vocabulary, but a couple of poetic device questions appeared to add literary context.
The paper was of moderate difficulty, testing grammar, vocabulary, and comprehension skills.
Reading Comprehension passages were straightforward but required attentive reading.
Grammar questions focused on error spotting, sentence improvement, and fill-in-the-blanks.
Vocabulary-based questions included synonyms, antonyms, and idiom meanings.
Para-jumbles and sentence rearrangement questions tested logical flow understanding.
Cloze test passages checked contextual understanding and vocabulary application.
Overall, the section favored students with consistent reading and practice.
The difficulty level for CUET English vocabulary and comprehension was easy to moderate, suitable for students with basic understanding.
Synonyms, antonyms, and contextual vocabulary questions dominated the paper, testing word usage extensively.
Reading comprehension featured 3 to 4 passages evaluating inference and detailed reading skills.
No foreign-origin words were tested, simplifying the vocabulary section.
One-word substitution and matching column style questions included terms like autocracy, theology, and their meanings, focusing on word knowledge.
The overall difficulty was moderate to difficult, with a lengthy paper.
There were three reading comprehension passages: one story-based, one on social media, and another on skin disease.
The paper had 5-6 questions on sentence arrangement.
12-14 vocabulary questions (synonyms/antonyms) were asked, with a high difficulty level.
The following types of questions were present.
Phrasal verbs like "Bring Up" and "Bring Down" were asked.
There were only 1-2 grammar questions, making grammar a very limited section.
The overall difficulty level of the English paper was Moderate to Difficult, with some sections being more time-consuming than others.
Reading Comprehension (RC) was considered the easiest section, with story-based conversational passages. A total of 4 passages were given, each carrying 4 questions, summing up to 16 questions from RC alone.
Sentence Re-Arrangement carried significant weightage, similar to previous years, with around 7-8 questions attempted by students. In total, up to 15 questions were from this section, making it crucial for scoring.
Combined, Reading Comprehension and Sentence Re-Arrangement contributed to 25-30 questions, making them the core of the paper.
A good number of questions were from Synonyms and Antonyms, presented in a matching-type format, which helped students apply the option elimination method effectively to get correct answers.
Questions on Idioms and Phrasal Verbs were also asked in the matching format, aiding students in answering them with reasonable ease.
Grammar-based questions appeared from topics like Adverbs, Verbs, and Prepositions, again following the matching format pattern, simplifying the process of elimination.
The Fill in the Blanks (Fillers) section featured questions with words like Mellifluous, Insipid, and Plagiarism, testing vocabulary and contextual usage.
Among idioms, phrases like "Break the Ice" appeared, focusing on common idiomatic expressions students were expected to know.
While vocabulary and rearrangement sections were lengthy, familiarity with NCERT grammar rules and basic vocabulary would have made these manageable.
Overall, questions were direct but required good comprehension skills and command over vocabulary. Time management was crucial due to the high number of RC and rearrangement questions.
Easy-level CUET English reading comprehension passages with 3 texts covering 15 total questions, focused on improving reading and understanding skills.
The sentence rearrangement section featured around 12–15 questions, mostly straightforward, with a few challenging rearrangement sets.
Grammar questions tested key concepts like modal verbs (especially “would”), conjunctions, prepositions, and verb forms.
Vocabulary practice included 5–6 synonyms and antonyms words such as Equitable, Tranquil, and Apathetic.
Match-the-column questions on idioms, one-word substitutions, and frequently used phrasal verbs like call off, break down, and a single figure of speech question were included.
Overall Difficulty
The English section was of easy to moderate difficulty, with predictable question types that made it manageable for most aspirants.
Compared to previous years, vocabulary-based questions were more prominent, making the paper straightforward for well-prepared students.
Reading Comprehension (RC)
There were 3 reading comprehension passages, all of which were very easy and direct, focusing on basic reading skills.
The RCs did not require critical analysis, keeping this section for scoring candidates.
Vocabulary & Usage
A significant number of questions were based on synonyms, antonyms, phrasal verbs, and one-word substitutions.
Idioms, phrases, and sentence-making questions were also frequently asked, testing practical language application.
Grammar & Language Structure
Though limited, grammar-based questions included fill-in-the-blanks (modals), subject-verb agreement, and adverb-based questions.
Sentence rearrangement questions also appeared, adding a mild analytical touch to the section.
The comprehension passages were moderate, focusing on themes like environment, education, and societal issues.
Vocabulary questions included synonyms, antonyms, and contextual usage; difficulty was moderate.
Grammar-based questions on subject-verb agreement, tenses, and error detection were easy.
Para-jumbles and sentence rearrangement tested logical sequencing; slightly time-consuming.
Idioms and phrases were asked directly; 2-3 questions were tricky.
Fill-in-the-blanks based on contextual usage of prepositions and articles were easy.
Overall, students found English moderate but doable with a good reading habit.
Many students overlook post-exam analysis, but it's a powerful tool to evaluate performance, spot trends, and plan future preparation. Here's what it reveals:
Comprehension Skills Tested: Helps identify whether the focus was on interpretation, tone, or information retrieval.
Vocabulary Trends: Understand if questions leaned toward synonyms, antonyms, or context-based usage.
Grammar Focus Areas: See which rules, like voice, narration, or sentence structure, were emphasised.
Time Management Insight: Learn which sections require more time, helping future aspirants optimize speed.
Skill vs Knowledge Based: Determines if the exam favors practical language application over theoretical understanding.
Hello,
You cannot get admission to engineering courses in Delhi University (DU) through CUET scores .
DU offers engineering courses under its Faculty of Technology, and admissions to these courses are based on JEE Main scores, not CUET.
Hope it helps !
Hello,
Delhi University (DU) offers various engineering courses under its Department of Technology.
Admission to these courses is primarily based on the Joint Entrance Examination (JEE) Main scores. However, some courses may also consider CUET (Common University Entrance Test) scores for admission.
The exact number of seats filled through CUET scores can vary each year and are not publicly disclosed.
Hope it helps !
Admissions for CUET aren't solely based on 2 Non-Med Percentage along with JEE Mains percentile. The eligibility criteria for CUET require students to have scored at least 50% marks in their Class 12th exam for general candidates and 45% for reserved categories.
Additionally, CUET has its own exam pattern, which includes multiple-choice questions divided into three sections:
- Section 1: Language proficiency(English/Hindi/regional languages)
- Section 2: Domain-specific subjects
- Section 3: General Aptitude
It's also important to note that while JEE Mains is a separate entrance exam, some universities may consider both CUET and JEE Mains scores for admission to certain programs. However, the specific admission criteria may vary depending on the university and course.
To confirm the admission criteria for your desired course, I recommend checking the official websites of the participating universities or contacting them directly.
Yes, if the CUET UG application form does not ask for the 10th marksheet upload and only requires a photograph and signature, your application should still be considered valid. Since you are currently appearing for the 12th exams, the system may not require additional documents at this stage. However, double-check the official guidelines or contact CUET support to confirm.
A PG (Postgraduate) degree in Forensic Science, specifically an M.Sc. in Forensic Science, is a two-year program that provides specialized knowledge and skills in the scientific analysis and application of techniques for collecting and analyzing evidence to solve crimes.
You can refer to following link for the paper
CUET forensic science question paper
GOOD luck!!
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