Pearson | PTE
Register now for PTE & Unlock 20% OFF : Use promo code: 'C360SPL20'. Valid till 15th NOV'24! Trusted by 3,500+ universities globally
CUET Political Science Question Paper 2024: Political Science as an undergraduate course is popular among students, especially those aiming for the UPSC examination. To get admission into a top university to pursue Political Science, it is important for students to crack the CUET UG examination. The syllabus for the subject includes topics such as Nation-Building and Its Problems, Politics of Planned Development, Challenge to and Restoration of Congress System, Cold War Era in World Politics, and Globalisation and Its Critics among others.
Latest: CUET participating colleges | CUET 2025 eligibility criteria
Don't Miss: CUET Exam Date 2025 | CUET Cutoff
Suggested: CUET 2025 College Predictor
The Political Science section of the CUET paper can be tackled by studying your class notes and textbooks thoroughly. In addition, it is important to practice with sample questions and CUET UG political science previous year question papers to get an idea of the type of questions asked and the pattern of the CUET 2024 exam. Given below are some questions from the CUET UG Political Science question paper for your practice.
Please download the whole previous year's paper with the given link below -
Although CUET political science question paper pdf download can be done, you can save space on your device by going through the questions listed in this article. CUET political science question paper with answers are really helpful for those looking for explanations to the correct options.
1. Arrange the following in chronological order:
(A) Soviet invasion of Afghanistan
(B) Fall of Berlin Wall
(C) Disintegration of Soviet Union
(D) Russian Revolution
(E) Warsaw Pact
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Correct Option - B
Solution - The Russian Revolution was started in 1917. In 1955, the Warsaw Pact was formed to stop NATO, a Military Alliance. The fall of the Berlin Wall was held on 9 November 1989 during peaceful agitation. The Soviet Union invaded Afghanistan in 1979-1989. The Soviet Union splits into its constituent countries between 1988 and 1991. It was followed by internal political, economic, and ethnic collapse within the USSR, thereby ending the Soviet Union's existence as a sovereign state.
2. Identify the political consequences of the disintegration of the Soviet Union.
(A) Global war on terror
(B) End of cold war confrontation
(C) Formation of commonwealth of Independent States
(D) Gulf war
(E) Power relations in world politics changed
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Correct Option -D
Solution -
The fall of the Soviet Union and the breakdown of the socialist system in East European countries had significant ramifications for world politics, including:
The fall of the Soviet Union marked the end of Cold War politics and the rise of capitalism as the dominant ideology. The end of the bipolarity that characterized world politics since the end of World War II. With the end of the Soviet Union, power shifted to the United States. As a result, the United States became the superpower that dominated and shaped world affairs.
3. Which one of the following statements about the Berlin Wall is false?
(1) It was built during the cold war
(2) It symbolized the division between the capitalist and communist world
(3) It marked the unification of the two parts of Germany
(4) It was broken by the people on 9 November, 1989
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Correct Option -C
Solution -
Germany built the Berlin Wall during the Cold War. The wall plays a significant comparative reference between communism and capitalism, oppression and freedom. The Berlin Wall disintegrated on November 9th, 1989 after a huge agitation in East Berlin.
4. Match the operations with their respective years.
List - I List - II
(A) Operation Desert Storm (I) 1998
(B) Operation Infinite Reach (II) 1990
(C) Operation Enduring Freedom (III) 2003
(D) Operation Iraqi Freedom (IV) 2001
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Correct Option -D
Solution -
Operation Desert Storm began on January 16, 1991, It was launched to remove Iraqi forces from Kuwait. The other side of this conflict was also known as the Gulf War.
Operation Infinite Reach began on August 20, 1998. It was a military retaliation effort for bombing out cruise Missiles in Al-Qaeda Terrorist Targets. Operation Enduring Freedom began on October 7, 2001. It is related to air strikes on important targets, like Taliban airfields and headquarters buildings. Operation Iraqi Freedom (OIF) was started in 2003 to challenge Saddam Hussein's dictatorship.
5. Who was the General Secretary of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union in 1985?
(1) Mikhail Gorbachev
(2) Nikita Khrushchev
(3) Boris Yeltsin
(4) Leonid Brezhnev
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Correct Option - A
Solution - Gorbachev was appointed General Secretary of the CPSU (Communist Party of the Soviet Union) in 1985. Gorbachev became the world's last general secretary as the Soviet Union collapsed. Surprisingly, he was elected to that position mere hours after the death of the previous General Secretary, Konstantin Chernenko.
6. Arrange the following events in the correct sequence.
(A) Establishment of ASEAN
(B) China takeover of Tibet
(C) Open door policy adopted in China
(D) End of Second World War
(E) European Union was established
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Correct Option - D
Solution -
World War II ended six years and one day after Germany invaded Poland on September 1, 1939, kicking off the twentieth century's second global conflict.
The 17th point of the Agreement between the Chinese Government and the Tibet Government was signed on October 24th, 1951. It was also recognised by the international community.
Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN) Declaration was signed on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand. This was signed by the Founding Fathers of ASEAN (Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand).
The Open Door Policy was enacted in 1978 and it includes a series of measures in areas of foreign trade, foreign investment, and foreign borrowing.
The European Union (EU) is an organisation of European countries established in 1993 to manage their economic and political union.
7. To introduce a market economy in the 1970s, China did not adopt:
(1) Open door policy
(2) Privatisation of Agriculture & Industry
(3) Foreign direct investments & creation of special econimic zones
(4) The USSR model of Shock Theropy
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Correct Option - D
Solution - China did not follow the Soviet Union's shock therapy strategy to create a market economy in the 1970s. Instead, China opted for a strategy that included special economic zones (SEZs), industrial and agricultural privatisation, and an open-door policy. China did not follow the shock treatment approach at the time, which requires rapid and full liberalisation of an economy.
8. 'Marshall Plan' refers to:
(1) South-Asian Trade Act
(2) International forum for war criminals
(3) America's massive financial help to Europe
(4) Co-operatio with the developing countries
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Correct Option - C
Solution - The Marshall Plan (later called the European Recovery Programme (ERP)) was an American program launched in 1948 to provide foreign assistance to the economies of Western Europe. After the Second World War, the United States pledged $13.3 trillion (equivalent to $173 trillion in 2023) for the economic recovery of Western European economies.
9. The full form of OECD is:
(1) Organization for Export Co-operation and Development
(2) Organization foe Economic Co-operation and Development
(3) Organization for Energy Co-operation and Development
(4) Organization for Europe Co-operation and Development
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Correct Option - B
Solution - The OECD is an intergovernmental economic organization made up of 38 member countries. It was established in 1961 to facilitate international trade and economic development. The OECD plays an essential role in maintaining global economic stability by producing and updating a model of tax convention. This convention serves as a model for allocating taxation rights between countries.
10. ASEAN was established in the year:
(1) 1965
(2) 1967
(3) 1970
(4) 1972
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Correct Option - B
Solution - The ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) declaration was signed on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand. It was signed by its founders (Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand). This declaration is also called the Bangkok Declaration.
11. Which of the following is the major issue between the governments of Bangladesh and India?
(1) Terrorism
(2) River water dispute
(3) Economic Relations
(4) Infiltration
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Correct Option - B
Solution - River water dispute; The Teesta River, which flows through India and Bangladesh, has long been a source of friction between the two countries over water-sharing issues. The issue is over the equitable allocation of the river's supplies, particularly during the dry season, to suit both nations' agricultural, drinking water, and other demands.
India and Bangladesh have shared history, heritage, and language and cultural relations. However, serious concerns such as river water disputes (Teesta River water sharing), illegal immigration, and drug transactions between India and Bangladesh need to be solved.
12. In 1989, the Indian Peace Keeping Forces pulled out of Sri Lanka without attaing its objective because :
(A) India signed an accord with Sri Lanka
(B) The Indian Army got into fight with LTTE
(C) The Indian govenment wanted to stabilise relations between the Sri Lankan government and the Tamils
(D) Indian troops was not liked by the Sri Lankans
(E) Sri Lankan Tamils saw this as interferance in the internal affairs
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (B), (D) & (A) only
(2) (A), (C) & (D) only
(3) (A), (B) & (E) only
(4) (B), (D) & (E) only
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Correct Option - D
Solution -The Indian Peacekeeping Forces withdrew from Sri Lanka in 1989 due to conflicts with the LTTE and unpopularity among Sri Lankans. Sri Lankan Tamils perceived this as an intervention in domestic matters. This was against provisions of the Indo-Sri Lanka Accord of 1987, which sought to put an end to the civil war between the militant Tamil nationalists, known as the LTTE, and the Sri Lankan Military.
13. The Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKP) was sent to Sri Lanka in :
(1) 1985
(2) 1987
(3) 1988
(4) 1989
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Correct Option - B
Solution - In 1987, the Indian Peacekeeping Force (IPF) was deployed to Sri Lanka to end the civil war between Tamil minority organisations, such as the LTTE, and Sinhalese communities.
International media frequently refers to India's struggle in Sri Lanka as 'India's Vietnam,' about American military engagement in the Vietnam War. The Sri Lankan Civil War, which began in the early 1980s, saw an increase in deadly ethnic strife.
14. The form of government in Nepal till 2006 was :
(1) Capitalist Democracy
(2) Democratic
(3) Communist
(4) Constitutional Monarchy
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Correct Option - D
Solution -
Nepal was a constitutional monarchy and the world's only Hindu kingdom until it lost power in 2006 and was officially abolished in 2008. The head of state in Nepal is the President. The head of the executive is the Prime Minister.
Also Read,
15. India's conflict with Pakistan is over strategic issues like :
(1) Import natural gas from Afghanistan
(2) Role of non regional powers in South Asia
(3) India's demand for permanent seat in Security Council
(4) Control of the Siachen glacier
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Correct Option - D
Solution -
Since the partition of India and Pakistan in 1947, the two countries have been immersed in an ongoing and lasting struggle. The conflict has multiple causes, including water conflicts, Kashmir issues, border disputes, and so on. Nonetheless, the conflict between these two countries on the Siachen Glacier has piqued the interest of many in the strategic and international spheres.
16. Indentify the correct statement about World Trade Organization.
(1) It was established in 1994
(2) All decisions are taken by the five dominant economics in the world
(3) It formulates rules for national and international trade
(4) It succeded General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs (GATT)
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Correct Option - D
Solution -
The World Trade Organisation (WTO) is an intergovernmental organisation that regulates international Business.It was established on 1 January 1995. It replaced the GATT, which started in 1948. The first WTO Agreement was signed in Marrakesh on 15 April 1994 by 123 states. Decisions at the WTO are normally reached by consensus among all member countries and ratified by their parliaments.
17. List - I List - II
(A) Atoms for peace (I) WTO
(B) Rules of global trade (II) ECOSOC
(C) Economic & social cooperation (III) International NGO
(D) Advocacy on human rights (IV) IAEA
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
(2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
(3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
(4) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Correct Option - A
Solution -
The International Atomic Energy Agency was established in 1957 as the world's "Atoms for Peace" organisation under the United Nations
The WTO oversees the worldwide system of trade laws and assists poorer countries in increasing their trade capabilities. Global trade rules provide assurance and stability.
The Economic and Social Council, or ECOSOC, is one of the United Nations' six primary organs. It is a significant topic in the UPSC's international relations section.
International advocacy NGOs (IANGOs) are becoming increasingly important players in the global arena.
18. Veto power can be best described as :
(1) A special power enjoyed by all the members of the UN Security Council
(2) A negative vote which means 'I forbid'
(3) Monetarv benefits given to the nermanent members of the IINO
(4) A special power enjoyed by the Secretary General of the UNO
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Correct Option - B
Solution - A veto is the power to thwart or overturn a proposed ruling. Veto is Latin for "I forbid." A chief executive's power to veto a bill or resolution that the legislature has proposed is known as an executive prerogative.
19. Choose the incorrect statement about political consquences of globalisation.
(1) It erodes the ability of government
(2) Welfare state will be strengthen
(3) Minimalist state
(4) Capitalist policies
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Correct Option - D
Solution -
Political consequences Globalisation erodes state capacity, decreasing the government's ability to do what it wants. The old welfare state is making way for a more minimalist state that serves fundamental functions such as maintaining law and order and ensuring residents' security.
20. Globalization leads to Cultural Homogenisation because :
(A) Rise of Unifor Culture
(B) External influences enlarge our choices
(C) Imposition of Western culture on the rest of the world
(D) Modify the culture without overwhelming the traditional
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) and (C) only
(2) (B) and (D) only
(3) (B) and (C) only
(4) (A) and (D) only
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Correct Option - A
Solution -
Globalisation disseminates consumer products and popular culture from major economies such as the US and Western Europe, resulting in comparable consumption habits and lifestyles around the globe and a more homogenous global culture.
Western cultural ideals, conventions, and practices have a huge impact on cultures all over the world as a result of globalisation. Numerous areas, including language, fashion, entertainment, technology, and even social and political views, are affected by this impact.
Mode of Examination | Hybrid mode (Pen & Paper/Computer Based Test) |
Question Paper Format | Objective type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) |
Number of Sections | 4 Sections (Sections IA, IB, II, and III) |
Number of Questions | Section IA & IB- 40 (out of 50 questions to be attempted) Section II – 40 (out of 50 questions to be attempted) Section III – 50 (out of 60 questions to be attempted) |
Marking Scheme | +5 for each correct answer -1 for each incorrect answer |
Choice of Test Papers | Candidates can select up to 6 test papers, including 4 or 5 domain subjects, General Test, and 1 or 2 languages. |
Duration | Mathematics/Applied Mathematics, Accountancy, Physics, Chemistry, Economics, Computer Science/Informatics Practices, and General Test - 60 minutes Rest of the papers - 45 minutes |
Shifts and Duration | - Proposed three shifts per day for pen & paper mode, each lasting approximately two hours. |
The students can practice selected chapter wise questions from each topic of the CUET Political Science syllabus from the era of one-party dominance to Globalisation and its critics.
The aspirants can practice selected chapter wise questions from each topic of the CUET Geography from the Introduction of human geography: Nature and Human Geography to Geographical perspectives on selected issues and problems.
The candidates can practice selected chapter wise questions from each topic of the CUET English syllabus from noun to poetic devices.
The aspirants can practice selected chapter wise questions from each topic of the CUET General Test syllabus from Indian History to other topics of General Awareness.
The students can practice selected chapter wise questions from each topic of the CUET History syllabus from the Stories of first cities - Harappan archeology to the Making of the constitution.
The candidates can practice selected chapter wise questions from each topic of the CUET Sociology syllabus from the Structure of Indian Economy to Social Movements .
The aspirants can practice selected chapter wise questions from each topic of the CUET Psychology syllabus from the variation in psychological attributes to developing psychological skills .
The aspirants can practice selected chapter wise questions from each topic of the CUET Physical Education syllabus from the Sociological aspects of physical education to psychology and sports.
You must make notes while studying to revise them later. Make sure you cover all the important points from each chapter. Regular revision and practicing using sample papers and mock tests are crucial to achieving a good score.
First and foremost, you must be thorough with your prescribed textbook, such as the NCERT. Apart from that, you can buy question banks and PYQ books for practice.
No, guesswork is not advised since there is negative marking in the exam and you may lose marks unnecessarily if your guesses turn out to be wrong.
A score of 50% in class 12th from a recognised institution is the minimum requirement for the CUET exam.
Multiple choice questions or MCQs are asked in the CUET exam.
The tentative admission schedule for UG and Diploma Programmes of IGNTU, session 2024 is
1.Online Registration Start from 05-August-2024 to 25- August -2024
2.Declaration of the First Counselling List (Tentative) 28- August -2024
3.Date of Counselling and Document Verification in the respective Department (offline mode):
03 September 2024 – 04 September 2024
4.Declaration of the Selection list :7 September 2024
5.Deposition of the Admission fee by
the selected candidate :08 September 2024 to 11 September 2024
Hello aspirant,
Congratulations on scoring 308 in the CUET UG 2024 exam!
This is a good score and opens up several options for you in BA programs.
Explore different BA programs offered by various universities. Consider your interests and career goals to choose the right specialization. Each university has specific eligibility requirements, including minimum CUET scores. Ensure your score meets the criteria of your preferred colleges.
While your score is a crucial factor, other elements also influence your admission chances:
University Preferences: Different universities have varying admission criteria, including weightage given to CUET scores, board marks, and other factors.
Course Popularity: Highly sought-after programs often have higher cut-offs.
Reservations and Quotas: If you belong to a reserved category, it might influence your eligibility.
Additional Entrance Tests:
Some universities might conduct their own tests, which can impact your final selection.
Here are some tips that can help you to increase your chances:
Aim for Universities with Lower Cut-Offs:
Consider universities where your score aligns well with their previous year's cut-offs.
Apply to Multiple Universities: Increase your chances of admission by applying to several institutions.
Highlight Extracurricular Activities: A strong academic record combined with extracurricular achievements can enhance your profile.
Prepare for Interviews:
If required, practice your communication and interview skills.
For more information you can click on the college predictor link attached below.
https://university.careers360.com/cuet-college-predictor
Hello,
With a CUET UG 2024 score of 452, your chances of getting into top B.Tech programs in Computer Science Engineering (CSE), Information Technology (IT), or Artificial Intelligence and Machine Learning (AIML) will depend on the cut-offs for each college and the competition that year. While specific cut-offs can vary, here are some colleges that you could consider based on your score and preferences:
Delhi Technological University (DTU)
Netaji Subhas University of Technology (NSUT)
Jamia Millia Islamia (JMI)
Indraprastha Institute of Information Technology (IIIT Delhi)
Lovely Professional University (LPU)
Amity University
Galgotias University
SRM University
Sharda University
VIT Vellore (Vellore Institute of Technology)
Make sure to stay updated on the latest cut-offs and admission procedures for each university to maximize your chances of securing a spot in your desired program.
Hope it helps !
Hello Krish,
With a CUET score of 522 and belonging to the SC category, you have a good chance of securing admission to some reputed colleges for B.Com (Hons). Here are some suggestions for colleges that you might consider applying to:
Delhi University Colleges:
Sri Ram College of Commerce (SRCC)
One of the most prestigious colleges for commerce in India.
Hansraj College
Known for its excellent faculty and infrastructure.
Shaheed Bhagat Singh College
Offers good placement opportunities and has a strong commerce program.
Hindu College
Well-regarded for its academic environment and overall development.
Kirori Mal College
Offers good courses with ample extracurricular opportunities.
Other Universities and Colleges:
Christ University, Bangalore
Well-known for its commerce programs and vibrant campus life.
Loyola College, Chennai
Offers a strong commerce program with good faculty and resources.
St. Xaviers College, Kolkata
Renowned for its academic excellence and strong alumni network.
Narsee Monjee College of Commerce and Economics, Mumbai
Offers excellent commerce programs with good placement records.
Symbiosis College of Arts and Commerce, Pune
Known for its quality education and diverse campus environment.
Hello ayush hope you are doing well
BSc is a future oriented course which emphasis on research as well as teaching oriented degree It gives you a depth on that subject But it depends on your future what you want to do. Btech is industry based course and Bsc is a research based academic degree and NEET is a entry level of professional course If you have enough courage to take a drop and crack any entrance of Engineering or neet for good colleges then you can drop a year. But firstly make sure that your drop year should be worth enough in future.it totally depends on you how you are going to spend your coming year.
If you are not sure about any of these courses and want to take admission this year go for bachelor in science in private universities as they still open their admission process.
Select test center appointment | Scores valid for 5 Years | Multiple Attempts | Round 2 Closing Soon
Admissions open for BA/BSc. Liberal Arts (Honours) & BA / BSc. Liberal Arts (Honors) with Research
NAAC Accredited | DSIR Recognized | Students Exchange Programme | Merit Based Scholarships
#1 All India Top Emerging Engineering College | 100% Placement Track | 150+ Industry Interactions | Merit-Based Scholarships
Admissions Open for 2024
Accepted by more than 11,000 universities in over 150 countries worldwide