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CUET 2025 General Test Sample Papers: The CUET General Test is an important section of the CUET examination, covering current affairs, general awareness, numerical ability, and quantitative reasoning. It is crucial to prepare well for this part, as it can be the most scoring section, helping you gain admission to top central universities across the country.
Practicing previous years' questions and sample papers for the General Test is essential, as it will familiarize you with the exam pattern and question formats. Additionally, it will help in your time management for the actual CUET 2025. Here are some sample questions to boost your CUET preparation 2025.
For more practice and in-depth explanation of various general test CUET questions, click here:
Sample papers can give you an idea of the CUET exam pattern 2025 and the types of questions asked. This reduces anxiety and boosts confidence for the actual exam.
By solving sample papers, you can improve your time management skills and understand the question difficulty levels. This will help you prepare an attempt strategy for the exam day.
Solving sample questions will help you identify your strengths and weaknesses. This will help you focus more on the subjects/topics you are weak in and maintain consistency in your strong areas.
Accuracy is paramount in the CUET 2025 exam since there is negative marking in the paper. So, the more you practice using sample papers, the more your accuracy and speed improve.
Solving sample papers over and over will also help you revise concepts. This way you’ll be well prepared on the exam day and have a positive mindset.
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Question: There are five girls R, S, T, P, and Q sitting in a row facing north. T is sitting exactly in the middle of the row. Q is sitting to the immediate right and immediate left of P and T, respectively. S is not sitting at the extreme end. Who is sitting third to the left of R?
A. P
B. Q
C. S
D. T
Answer:
Given:
(i) T is sitting exactly in the middle of the row.
(ii) Q is sitting to the immediate right and immediate left of P and T, respectively. S is not sitting at the extreme end.
From the final seating arrangement, Q is sitting third to the left of R. Hence, the second option is correct.
Question: Ram leaves his house at 20 minutes to seven in the morning, and reaches Kunal's house in 25 minutes. They finish their breakfast in another 15 minutes and leave for their office which takes another 35 minutes. At what time do they leave Kunal's house to reach their office?
A. 7:40 a.m.
B. 7:20 a.m.
C. 7:45 a.m.
D. 8:15 a.m.
Answer:
Here, calculate the time step by step by following the steps –
1. Ram leaves his house at 20 minutes to seven in the morning, which means at 6:40 a.m.
2. Ram reaches Kunal's house in 25 minutes means at 6:40 a.m. + 25 minutes = 7:05 a.m.
3. They finish their breakfast in another 15 minutes means at 7:05 a.m. + 15 minutes = 7:20 a.m.
4. After that takes another 35 minutes, which means at 7:20 a.m. + 35 minutes = 7:55 a.m.
So, they leave Kunal's house to reach their office at 7:20 a.m. Hence, the second option is correct.
Question:
Which of the following is a volatile memory of a computer?
A. Secondary memory
B. Cache memory
C. RAM
D. ROM
Answer:
The correct answer is RAM.
RAM is a type of volatile memory. Volatile memory is computer memory that loses data when the computer is switched off. RAM is classified as volatile memory. RAM is an acronym for random access memory.
Question: Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?
M_OMMN_M_NOMMN_M
A. ONMO
B. NOMO
C. MONM
D. NNMO
Answer:
Given:
M_OMMN_M_NOMMN_M
To fill the series we have to divide the series – M_OM / MN_M / _NOM / MN_M
Let's check each option –
First option: ONMO; MOOM / MNNM / MNOM / MNOM (No repeated pattern has been found.)
Second option: NOMO; MNOM / MNOM / MNOM / MNOM (MNOM is repeated in the series.)
Third option: MONM; MMOM / MNOM / NNOM / MNMM (No repeated pattern has been found.)
Fourth option: NNMO; MNOM / MNNM / MNOM / MNOM (No repeated pattern has been found.)
So, the series becomes→MNOMMNOMMNOMMNOM. Hence, the second option is correct.
Question:
In which of the following states Vidhan Sabha elections was not held in 2022?
A. Haryana
B. Goa
C. Punjab
D. Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
The correct answer is Haryana
The states that held elections for state assemblies in 2022 are Goa, Punjab, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Manipur, Himachal Pradesh, and Gujarat. The elections in Haryana will take place in 2024.
Question:
The term 'Gambit' is associated with which of the following sports?
A. Basketball
B. Chess
C. Boxing
D. Golf
Answer:
The answer is Chess.
The term gambit is related to the game of chess. The gambit is a chess opening in which a player, usually white, makes material sacrifices in the hope of gaining an advantageous position. Chess terminology includes "Gambit," "Bishop," and "Checkmate."
Question:
Select the related letter cluster from the given alternatives.
ACEG : ZXVT :: IKMO : ?
A. MNOP
B. PQRS
C. RPNL
D. LNPR
Answer:
Given:
ACEG : ZXVT :: IKMO : ?
The pattern followed here is each letter is coded as its opposite letter –
Like, ACEG = A→Z; C→X; E→V; G→T
Thus, ACEG is coded as ZXVT.
Similarly, follow the same pattern for IKMO –
I→R; K→P; M→N; O→L
Thus, IKMO is coded as RPNL. Hence, the third option is correct.
Question: A is D's brother. D is B's father. B and C are sisters. How is C related to A?
A. Cousin
B. Niece
C. Aunt
D. Nephew
Answer:
As per the given information, the family tree will be as follows –
Here, the quadrilateral represents the male, and the circular figure represents the female in the figure.
So, from the above family tree, C is the niece of A. Hence, the second option is correct.
Question:
The weight of the four boxes is 20, 40, 80, and 90 kilograms. Which of the following cannot be the total weight, in kilograms, of any combination of these boxes, and in a combination, a box can be used only once?
A. 220
B. 230
C. 150
D. 210
Answer:
The weight of the four boxes is 20, 40, 80, and 90 kilograms.
The total weight of all possible combinations of boxes is as follows –
20 + 40 = 60; 20 + 80 = 100; 20 + 90 = 110; 40 + 80 = 120;
40 + 90 = 130; 80 + 90 = 170; 20 + 40 + 80 = 140;
20 + 40 + 90 = 150; 20 + 80 + 90 = 190; 40 + 80 + 90 = 210;
20 + 40 + 80 + 90 = 230
Therefore, there is no total weight of 220 kilograms in any combination. Hence, the first option is correct.
Question:
The average temperature of the town in the first six days of a month was 41° C and the sum of the temperatures of the first five days of the same month was 201° C. What was the temperature on the sixth day of the month?
A. 40° C
B. 45° C
C. 46° C
D. 50° C
Answer:
Average temperature of the first six days of the month = 41° C
The sum of the temperatures of 6 days = Average temperature × Number of days = 41 × 6 = 246° C
But, the sum of the temperatures of the first five days = 201° C
So, 201 + (temperature of the sixth day) = 246° C
The temperature of the sixth day = 246 – 201 = 45° C
Hence, the second option is correct.
Question:
How many triangles are there in the given figure?
A. 11
B. 9
C. 10
D. 12
Answer:
The given figure can be labeled as shown below –
There are a total of 10 triangles in the above figure. They are AFE, EDG, EFG, EHN, HNM, EHM, HIJ, GML, GNK, HKL.
Hence, the third option is correct.
Question:
In which year was the 'Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana' launched?
A. 2019
B. 2015
C. 2014
D. 2020
Answer:
The correct answer is 2015.
The 'Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana' (PMKVY) was launched in 2015. It is a skill development initiative of the Government of India aimed at providing skill training to the country's youth to help them secure a better livelihood and employment opportunities. It provides free short-duration skill training and rewards youth for skill certification.
Question:
A man gains 20% by selling an article for a certain price. If he sells it at double the price, the percentage of profit will be:
A. 40%
B. 100%
C. 120%
D. 140%
Answer:
Let the cost price (CP) be Rs. 100.
Profit = 20%
Selling price (SP) = 100 + 20 = Rs. 120
When the selling price is doubled, SP × 2 = (120 × 2) = Rs. 240
New profit = (New SP – CP) = (240 – 100) = Rs. 140
Thus, Profit % = 140/100 × 100 = 140%
Hence, the correct answer is 140%.
Question:
A genetically engineered form of brinjal known as the BT brinjal has been developed. The objective of this is
A. to make it pest-resistant
B. to improve its taste and nutritive value
C. to make it drought-resistant
D. to make its shelf life longer
Answer:
The correct option is to make it pest-resistant.
BT brinjal is a variety of brinjal that has been genetically modified to express a protein derived from the bacteria Bacillus thuringiensis (BT). This protein functions as a natural pesticide, protecting the plant from pest attacks. BT brinjal was created to lessen the need for chemical pesticides, increase agricultural output, and reduce insect, and pest damage.
Question:
Prince of Wales Cup is associated with ______.
A. Rugby
B. Golf
C. Polo
D. Chess
Answer:
The answer is Golf.
There are other famous cups related to the game, such as the Bombay Gold Cup, the Beighton Cup, the Walker Cup, and the Masters, among others. Trophies related to other games include the Ezra Cup and Prithi Singh Cup in Polo, the Lord Derby Cup in rugby, and the Sinquefield Cup in chess.
Question:
Which of the following countries do not have a written constitution?
A. United Kingdom
B. Australia
C. United States of America
D. Bangladesh
Answer:
The correct answer is the United Kingdom.
A written constitution is a carefully planned document that outlines all the fundamental laws, institutions and rules. An 'unwritten' constitution is what the UK is said to have. The various texts that comprise the laws of the land are not all codified in writing. Many countries, including Saudi Arabia, the United Kingdom, China, Israel, Canada, and New Zealand, have unwritten constitutions.
Question: Shama, during the time of sunset, started walking towards the opposite side of the sun and then she turned right and right again. What direction is she facing?
A. South
B. West
C. East
D. North
Answer:
Firstly, we will draw the direction and distance diagram according to the instructions given in the question –
Shama started walking towards the opposite direction of the sun during sunset, i.e., she was walking in the East direction (because during sunset, the sun is in the west direction).
So, Shama is facing the west direction. Hence, the second option is correct.
Question: The foreign traveller who visited India during the reign of Shah Jahan was
A. Thomas Roe
B. William Hawkins
C. Ibn Battuta
D. Manucci
Answer:
The correct answer is Niccolao Manucci.
Niccolao Manucci was a self-taught physician and traveller from Venice and the first person to write accounts of the Mughal Empire. His writings are regarded as one of the most valuable sources of information about India during the Mughal era. During Shah Jahan's rule in India in 1653, he arrived there. He lived in India for a while, working as a doctor and a soldier in the Mughal army.
Question: A and B are a married couple. X and Y are brothers. X is the brother of A. How is Y related to B?
A. Brother-in-law
B. Brother
C. Son-in-law
D. Cousin
Answer:
As per the given information, the family tree will be as follows –
Here, the quadrilateral represents the male, and the circular figure represents the female in the figure.
So, from the above family tree, Y is the brother-in-law of B. Hence, the first option is correct.
Question: The Comptroller and Auditor General of India submits his report relating to the accounts of the union to the:
A. Finance minister
B. Prime minister
C. President
D. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
Answer:
The correct answer is The President.
The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India annually submits its report to the President of India. Established under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution, it is the topmost audit institution in India. CAG audits the accounts of the Government of India and other institutions that receive government funding. The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is responsible for discussing the CAG report in the parliament.
Question: The weight of the four boxes is 20, 40, 80, and 90 kilograms. Which of the following cannot be the total weight, in kilograms, of any combination of these boxes, and in a combination, a box can be used only once?
A. 220
B. 230
C. 150
D. 210
Answer:
The weight of the four boxes is 20, 40, 80, and 90 kilograms.
The total weight of all possible combinations of boxes is as follows –
20 + 40 = 60; 20 + 80 = 100; 20 + 90 = 110; 40 + 80 = 120;
40 + 90 = 130; 80 + 90 = 170; 20 + 40 + 80 = 140;
20 + 40 + 90 = 150; 20 + 80 + 90 = 190; 40 + 80 + 90 = 210;
20 + 40 + 80 + 90 = 230
Therefore, there is no total weight of 220 kilograms in any combination. Hence, the first option is correct.
Question: Who was the architect of the Taj Mahal?
A. Ustad Ahmad Lahori
B. Norman Foster
C. Henry Irwin
D. Ustad Ghani Qutbuddin
Answer:
The correct option is Ustad Ahmad Lahori
Taj Mahal is regarded as the highest achievement in all of Indo-Islamic architecture. Shah Jahan of the Mughal Empire ordered the construction of Taj Mahal on the banks of the Yamuna, with Ustad Ahmad Lahori serving as its principal architect. To give Taj Mahal its opulent appearance, the architect tried to combine elements of Persian, Islamic and Mughal architecture. Construction of Taj Mahal took place between 1632 and 1648.
Question: The average of 11 numbers is 7. If every number is doubled, what will be the new average of the numbers?
A. 3.5
B. 7
C. 10.5
D. 14
Answer:
The average of 11 numbers is 7.
Total of 11 numbers = 11 × 7 = 77
If every number is doubled, their total will also be doubled.
So, new total = 77 × 2 = 154
So, new average = 154/11 = 14
Hence, the correct answer is 14.
Question: The largest irrigation canal in India is called the
A. Yamuna Canal
B. Sirhind Canal
C. Indira Gandhi Canal
D. Upper Bari Doab Canal
Answer:
The correct answer is the Indira Gandhi Canal.
The Indira Gandhi Canal is the longest canal system in India. It starts at Harike Barrage and flows parallel to the India-Pakistan border. The primary aim of the project was to provide irrigation facilities in Rajasthan. Harike Barrage is formed at the confluence of the rivers Sutlej and Beas in the state of Punjab, and the Indira Gandhi Canal passes through the states of Punjab, Rajasthan and Haryana.
Question: In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
Cytology : Cells :: ? : Birds
A. Odontology
B. Mycology
C. Etymology
D. Ornithology
Answer:
Cytology : Cells :: ? : Birds
Cytology is the study of cells.
Similarly, Ornithology is the study of birds.
Hence, the fourth option is correct.
Question: In the following question, correct the equation by interchanging two signs.
6 + 8 ÷ 4 – 4 = 8
A. ÷ and =
B. ÷ and +
C. ÷ and –
D. + and –
Answer:
Given:
6 + 8 ÷ 4 – 4 = 8
Let's check the options –
First option: ÷ and =
6 + 8 = 4 – 4 ÷ 8
LHS→6 + 8 = 14
RHS→4 – 4 ÷ 8
= 4 – 0.5
= 3.5
LHS ≠ RHS
Second option: ÷ and +
6 ÷ 8 + 4 – 4 = 8
LHS→6 ÷ 8 + 4 – 4
= 0.75 + 4 – 4
= 0.75
RHS→8
LHS ≠ RHS
Third option: ÷ and –
6 + 8 – 4 ÷ 4 = 8
LHS→6 + 8 – 4 ÷ 4
= 6 + 8 – 1
= 14 – 1
= 13
RHS→8
LHS ≠ RHS
Fourth option: + and –
6 – 8 ÷ 4 + 4 = 8
LHS→6 – 8 ÷ 4 + 4
= 6 – 2 + 4
= 10 – 2
= 8
RHS→8
LHS = RHS
Only the fourth option satisfies the equation. Hence, the fourth option is correct.
Question: The age of Dr. Pandey is four times the age of his son. After 10 years, the age of Dr. Pandey will be twice the age of his son. What is the present age of Dr. Pandey's son?
A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. 8 years
Answer:
Let Dr. Pandey's present age be A, and Dr. Pandey's son's present age be B.
As per the given information,
Dr. Pandey's age is four times the age of his son ⇒ A = 4 × B = 4B
After 10 years, Dr. Pandey's age = (A + 10), and Dr. Pandey's son's age = (B + 10)
Also, after 10 years, Dr. Pandey's age will be twice his son's age, i.e., (A + 10) = 2 × (B + 10)
As, A = 4B; therefore, (A + 10) = 2 × (B + 10) can be written as –
⇒ (4B + 10) = 2 × (B + 10)
⇒ 4B + 10 = 2B + 20
⇒ 4B – 2B = 20 – 10
⇒ 2B = 10 ⇒ B = 10 ÷ 2
⇒ B = 5
So, Dr. Pandey's son's present age is 5 years. Hence, the second option is correct
Mode of Examination | Hybrid mode (Pen & Paper/Computer Based Test) |
Question Paper Format | Objective type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) |
Number of Sections | 4 Sections (Sections IA, IB, II, and III) |
Number of Questions | Section IA & IB- 40 (out of 50 questions to be attempted) Section II – 40 (out of 50 questions to be attempted) Section III – 50 (out of 60 questions to be attempted) |
Marking Scheme | +5 for each correct answer -1 for each incorrect answer |
Choice of Test Papers | Candidates can select up to 6 test papers, including 4 or 5 domain subjects, General Test, and 1 or 2 languages. |
Duration | Mathematics/Applied Mathematics, Accountancy, Physics, Chemistry, Economics, Computer Science/Informatics Practices, and General Test - 60 minutes Rest of the papers - 45 minutes |
Shifts and Duration | - Proposed three shifts per day for pen & paper mode, each lasting approximately two hours. |
Aspirants can practice chapter-wise MCQs to take their preparation to the next level.
The candidates can practice selected chapter wise questions from each topic of the CUET English syllabus from noun to poetic devices.
The aspirants can practice selected chapter wise questions from each topic of the CUET General Test syllabus from Indian History to other topics of General Awareness.
The students can practice selected chapter wise questions from each topic of the CUET Economics syllabus from LPG economic reforms to Forex.
The candidates are advised to practice these selected chapter wise questions from each topic of the CUET Physics syllabus from electric charge and fields to communication systems.
The candidates can practice selected chapter wise questions from each topic of the CUET Chemistry syllabus from the P-Block elements to Chemistry in Everyday Life.
The aspirants can practice selected chapter wise questions from each topic of the CUET Mathematics syllabus from continuity and differentiability to determinants.
The aspirants can practice selected chapter wise questions from each topic of the CUET Biology syllabus from reproduction in organisms to Environmental issues.
The candidates can practice selected chapter wise questions from each topic of the CUET Sociology syllabus from the Structure of Indian Economy to Social Movements .
The aspirants can practice selected chapter wise questions from each topic of the CUET Accountancy syllabus from Accounting not-for-profit organisations to ratios.
The students can practice selected chapter wise questions from each topic of the CUET Political Science syllabus from the era of one-party dominance to Globalisation and its critics.
The aspirants can practice selected chapter wise questions from each topic of the CUET Psychology syllabus from the variation in psychological attributes to developing psychological skills .
The aspirants can practice selected chapter wise questions from each topic of the CUET Physical Education syllabus from the Sociological aspects of physical education to psychology and sports.
The candidates can practice selected chapter wise questions from each topic of the CUET Business Studies syllabus from the nature and significance of management to entrepreneurship development .
The aspirants can practice selected chapter-wise questions from each topic of the CUET Geography from the Introduction of Human Geography: Nature and Human Geography to Geographical perspectives on selected issues and problems.
The students can practice selected chapter wise questions from each topic of the CUET History syllabus from the Stories of first cities - Harappan archeology to the Making of the Constitution.
Also Read,
Go to the official website National Testing Agency (nta.ac.in) then go to the downloads and select the year, exam and subject then search it, finally download the PYQs.
Main topics that are included are Current affairs, General Awareness, Logical reasoning, quantitative reasoning and Numerical ability.
There are 60 questions and you should attempt at least 50 of them.
60 minutes are given for the General Test section.
Yes, one mark is deducted for each wrong answer.
YES, there is a negative marking in the CUET exam every wrong answer carries a mark of -1.
You can get the books for the general section from your nearby book store as well as from online platforms like Flipkart, Amazon etc.
The tentative admission schedule for UG and Diploma Programmes of IGNTU, session 2024 is
1.Online Registration Start from 05-August-2024 to 25- August -2024
2.Declaration of the First Counselling List (Tentative) 28- August -2024
3.Date of Counselling and Document Verification in the respective Department (offline mode):
03 September 2024 – 04 September 2024
4.Declaration of the Selection list :7 September 2024
5.Deposition of the Admission fee by
the selected candidate :08 September 2024 to 11 September 2024
Hello aspirant,
Congratulations on scoring 308 in the CUET UG 2024 exam!
This is a good score and opens up several options for you in BA programs.
Explore different BA programs offered by various universities. Consider your interests and career goals to choose the right specialization. Each university has specific eligibility requirements, including minimum CUET scores. Ensure your score meets the criteria of your preferred colleges.
While your score is a crucial factor, other elements also influence your admission chances:
University Preferences: Different universities have varying admission criteria, including weightage given to CUET scores, board marks, and other factors.
Course Popularity: Highly sought-after programs often have higher cut-offs.
Reservations and Quotas: If you belong to a reserved category, it might influence your eligibility.
Additional Entrance Tests:
Some universities might conduct their own tests, which can impact your final selection.
Here are some tips that can help you to increase your chances:
Aim for Universities with Lower Cut-Offs:
Consider universities where your score aligns well with their previous year's cut-offs.
Apply to Multiple Universities: Increase your chances of admission by applying to several institutions.
Highlight Extracurricular Activities: A strong academic record combined with extracurricular achievements can enhance your profile.
Prepare for Interviews:
If required, practice your communication and interview skills.
For more information you can click on the college predictor link attached below.
https://university.careers360.com/cuet-college-predictor
Hello,
With a CUET UG 2024 score of 452, your chances of getting into top B.Tech programs in Computer Science Engineering (CSE), Information Technology (IT), or Artificial Intelligence and Machine Learning (AIML) will depend on the cut-offs for each college and the competition that year. While specific cut-offs can vary, here are some colleges that you could consider based on your score and preferences:
Delhi Technological University (DTU)
Netaji Subhas University of Technology (NSUT)
Jamia Millia Islamia (JMI)
Indraprastha Institute of Information Technology (IIIT Delhi)
Lovely Professional University (LPU)
Amity University
Galgotias University
SRM University
Sharda University
VIT Vellore (Vellore Institute of Technology)
Make sure to stay updated on the latest cut-offs and admission procedures for each university to maximize your chances of securing a spot in your desired program.
Hope it helps !
Hello Krish,
With a CUET score of 522 and belonging to the SC category, you have a good chance of securing admission to some reputed colleges for B.Com (Hons). Here are some suggestions for colleges that you might consider applying to:
Delhi University Colleges:
Sri Ram College of Commerce (SRCC)
One of the most prestigious colleges for commerce in India.
Hansraj College
Known for its excellent faculty and infrastructure.
Shaheed Bhagat Singh College
Offers good placement opportunities and has a strong commerce program.
Hindu College
Well-regarded for its academic environment and overall development.
Kirori Mal College
Offers good courses with ample extracurricular opportunities.
Other Universities and Colleges:
Christ University, Bangalore
Well-known for its commerce programs and vibrant campus life.
Loyola College, Chennai
Offers a strong commerce program with good faculty and resources.
St. Xaviers College, Kolkata
Renowned for its academic excellence and strong alumni network.
Narsee Monjee College of Commerce and Economics, Mumbai
Offers excellent commerce programs with good placement records.
Symbiosis College of Arts and Commerce, Pune
Known for its quality education and diverse campus environment.
Hello ayush hope you are doing well
BSc is a future oriented course which emphasis on research as well as teaching oriented degree It gives you a depth on that subject But it depends on your future what you want to do. Btech is industry based course and Bsc is a research based academic degree and NEET is a entry level of professional course If you have enough courage to take a drop and crack any entrance of Engineering or neet for good colleges then you can drop a year. But firstly make sure that your drop year should be worth enough in future.it totally depends on you how you are going to spend your coming year.
If you are not sure about any of these courses and want to take admission this year go for bachelor in science in private universities as they still open their admission process.
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