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Get UpdatesNEST 2024 : NISER Bhubaneswar, in collaboration with UM DAE CEBS has released the NEST 2024 admit card on June 20, in online mode. Candidates can download NEST admit card 2024 by entering their login details at nestexam.in. The NEST application correction window 2024 was closed on June 14. The NEST 2024 correction window was opened on June 12, in online mode. The NEST 2024 exam will be held on June 30.
Latest: Direct link to download NEST admit card 2024
The NEST 2024 registration process was closed on June 3. The NISER Bhubaneswar & UM DAE CEBS has announced the NEST 2024 exam dates in online mode. Candidates can download the admit card by using their login credentials. The NEST 2024 exam will be conducted to offer admissions for MSc programmes on June 30. NISER Bhubaneswar & UM DAE CEBS will announce the NEST result 2024 on July 10, on the official website. The NEST score will be used to shortlist candidates for the admission process.
The NEST 2024 exam will be conducted in online mode in around 116 cities across India. The NEST 2024 exam will have four sections, four sections of objective (MCQ) type questions. Each section is worth 50 marks and will contain subject-specific questions from Biology, Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics. NEST examination 2024 will be held for a duration of 3.5 hours. The medium of the NEST entrance test 2024 is English only.
The National Entrance Screening Test (NEST) is an all-India examination conducted by the National Institute of Science Education and Research (NISER) for admission into the 5-year Integrated MSc programme in basic sciences - Biology, Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics - at NISER and the University of Mumbai - Department of Atomic Energy Centre for Excellence in Basic Sciences (UM-DAE CBS).
NEST stands for National Entrance Screening Test, conducted by the National Institute of Science Education and Research NISER Bhubaneswar and Mumbai University - Department of Atomic Energy Centre for Excellence in Basic Sciences (UM-DAE CEBS), Mumbai.
National Entrance Screening Test (NEST) is a national-level compulsory entrance exam for admission in the Integrated MSc program at NISER, Bhubaneswar, and UM-DAE CEBS, Mumbai. NEST is conducted jointly by the (NISER), Bhubaneswar and Mumbai University - Department of Atomic Energy Centre for Excellence in Basic Sciences (UM-DAE CEBS), Mumbai. Candidates who are curious to learn about the NEST exam is for which course; a list is provided below. The NISER exam will be conducted annually in online mode for Integrated MSc program:
The participating institutions of NEST 2024, the National Institute of Science Education and Research (NISER), Bhubaneswar and University of Mumbai- Department of Atomic Energy Centre for Excellence in Basic Sciences (UM-DAE CEBS) Mumbai will conduct the counselling separately for admissions to their programmes.
The NEST 2024 admission process involves five steps. To begin, applicants must apply for the NEST exam 2024. The second step is to qualify for the NEST exam. After passing the NEST entrance exam, candidates will participate in the NEST counselling , conducted by universities. Finally, they must pay the requisite fee to take admission. This summarises the NEST examination process for 2024. The NEST admission process varies for different NEST exam colleges.
Contact details -
Email ID - nest-exam@niser.ac.in
Helpline - 0674-2494044
| Full Exam Name | National Entrance Screening Test |
| Short Exam Name | NEST |
| Conducting Body | National Institute of Science Education and Research |
| Frequency of Conduct | Once a year |
| Exam Level | National Level Exam |
| Languages | English |
| Mode of Application | Online |
| Application Fee (General) | 1400 Rs [Online] |
| Mode of Exam | Online |
| Mode of Counselling | Online / Offline |
| Exam Duration | 3 Hours 30 Minutes |
Upcoming Dates and Events
30 Jun, 2024
Exam | Mode: Online Today
20 Jun, 2024 - 30 Jun, 2024
Admit Card | Mode: Online Ongoing
10 Jul, 2024
Result | Mode: Online
Past Dates and Events
12 Jun, 2024 - 14 Jun, 2024
Application Correction | Mode: Online
03 Apr, 2024 - 03 Jun, 2024
Application | Mode: Online
Applications for Admissions are open.
Candidates who meet the NEST eligibility criteria 2024, set by NISER Bhubaneswar and UM-DAE CEBS, will appear for the National Entrance Screening Test (NEST). If a candidate fails to meet the NEST 2024 eligibility criteria, their candidacy will be cancelled by the authorities. Those who qualify for the NEST and fulfill the NEST eligibility criteria 2024 will be offered admission to five-year integrated MSc programmes provided by NISER Bhubaneswar and UM-DAE CEBS.
Qualifying Exam: To be eligible to appear for NEST entrance exam aspirants must have qualified Class 12th exam form Science stream or have been appearing in Class 12th exam, from a recognized board by the Indian government. Furthermore, candidates are required to have passed Class 12th in the years 2023/2024 or must be appearing for the exam in 2024.
Qualifying Exam Marks: Every applicant must fulfil the marks required for NEST exam 2024. Candidates who belong to the general category are required to have a minimum aggregate of 60% in the Class 12th examination, whereas candidates belonging to reserved categories such as SC/ST/PwD only need to score 55% aggregate in Class 12th.
Lower Age Limit: The authorities will laid out the lower age limit NEST which candidates have to satisfy to attempt the entrance exam. The lower age limit set by the authorities varies for candidates as per the category they belong to. Candidates belonging to the General and OBC category must have been born on or after August 1, 2002, while candidates of SC/ST/PwD categories are given a relaxation of 5 years such that they must have been born on or after August 1, 1997.
Mode of Application : Online
Mode of Payment : Net Banking | Credit Card | Debit Card
The NEST 2024 correction window has been started on June 12, in online mode. Applicants can make changes till June 14. The National Entrance Screening Test (NEST) 2024 application form was closed on June 3 by NISER Bhubaneswar in collaboration with the University of Mumbai - Department of Atomic Energy Centre for Excellence in Basic Sciences (UM DAE CEBS). Candidates will need to complete the entire NEST 2024 application process in an online format, from registration through submitting personal information, uploading necessary documents and paying the application fee. Before submitting the NEST application form , candidates must double-check that all details included are accurate. For guidance on how to fill out the NEST 2024 application form, please follow the steps outlined below.
Things to keep ready before filling the NEST Application Form
Steps to fill the NEST Application Form 2024
Step 1: Go to the official website - nestexam.in.
Step 2: Click on the ' Apply Online ' button, followed by 'New Registration'.
Step 3: Now register yourself by submitting the required information.
Step 4: After entering the details, click on ' Register '.
Step 5: The login credentials will be sent to the registered mobile number and email-Id of the candidate.
Step 6: Candidates can login using their login credentials and fill the NEST application form by filling information and uploading the necessary documents.
Step 7: Now, candidates can proceed on to pay the application fee through credit card/debit card/net banking and then submit the application fee.
| Category | Quota | Mode | Gender | Amount |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| General, OBC | Online | Male | ₹ 1400 | |
| SC, ST | Online | Male | ₹ 700 | |
| ST, General, OBC, SC | Online | Female | ₹ 700 |
Candidates can go through the NEST previous year question papers to score more marks in the NEST exam 2024.
Session | Question paper and answer key |
NEST Question Paper Session 1 | |
NEST Question Paper Session 2 |
Session | Question paper and answer key |
NEST Question Paper Session 1 | |
NEST Question Paper Session 2 |
Session | Question paper and answer key |
NEST Question Paper Session 1 | |
NEST Question Paper Session 2 |
Session | Question paper and answer key |
NEST Question Paper Session 1 | |
NEST Question Paper Session 2 |
Year | Link |
2019 | |
2018 | |
2017 | |
2016 | |
2015 | |
2014 | |
2013 | |
2012 | |
2011 | |
2010 | |
2009 | |
2008 | |
2007 |
Cell biology |
|---|
| Cell theory and cells as unit of life |
| Basic concepts of biomolecules-proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, nucleic acids |
| Tools and techniques of cell studies-use of microscope and calibration (microscopy), elements of microscope |
| Biomembranes-transport mechanism, cellular respiration |
| Cell organelles-structure and functions |
| Discovery and structure of DNA, processes of replication, transcription, genetic code and translation |
| Principles of the basic techniques in molecular biology |
| Enzymes-catalysis, kinetics, activation energy, competitive, and non-competitive inhibition |
Genetics and evolution |
|---|
| Fundamentals of genetics and evolution |
| Evidences and theories of organic evolution |
| Organization of the hereditary material in chromosomes |
| Equational division |
| Reduction division |
| Mitosis and meiosis compared, and contrasted |
| Significance of meiosis |
| Mendel's laws of inheritance |
| Discovery of linkage, sex-linked inheritance |
| Crossing-over, stage at which crossing-over occurs |
| Neurospora genetics |
| Mutation-discovery, types of mutation, and mutations in diploids |
| Role of mutations in evolution |
| Elaboration of mendel's laws of inheritance |
| Monohybrid or dihybrid crosses |
| Human genetics-human chromosomes, sex-determination, sex-linked inheritance |
Ecology |
|---|
| Physical and biological factors in influencing organisms |
| Food chains, pyramids of numbers, and biomass |
| Biological equilibrium |
| Interspecific associations |
| Biodiversity |
| Flora and fauna |
| Basics of microbial systems, ecosystems |
Humans and environment |
|---|
| Soil, rainfall, and temperature with reference to natural resources |
| Our natural resources-their uses and abuses |
| Environmental pollution and preventive measures |
| Biodiversity and conservation |
Biotechnology |
|---|
| Principles of recombinant dna technology |
| Applications of biotechnology |
Biology of animal systems |
|---|
| Digestive system: Modes of nutrition. Different vitamin compounds and their deficiencies. Structure of alimentary canal and associated glands, digestive enzymes, and gastrointestinal hormones |
| Digestive system: Absorption of products of digestion, peristalsis, balanced diet |
| Respiratory system: Gaseous exchange in animals. Structure of respiratory organs, mechanism of breathing, gaseous transport, tissue respiration |
| Circulatory system: Open and closed systems. Functions of blood and lymph. Microscopic structure of blood and blood vessels. Structures and working of heart. Distribution of arteries and veins. Circulation of blood coagulation. Blood groups |
| Excretory system: Elimination of nitrogenous waste. Osmoconformers and osmoregulators. Structure and function of kidney tubules. Arrangement of excretory organs |
| Nervous system: General account of brain, spinal cord, and nerves. Reflex actions (simple and conditioned). Sense organs (eye and ear) |
| Reproductive system: Sexual and asexual reproduction. General arrangement and functions of reproductive organs |
Developmental biology |
|---|
| Basic features of development in animals |
| Types of eggs, fertilization, cleavage, blastula |
| Stem cells-definition, types, uses, advantages, and disadvantages, induced pluripotent stem cells |
| Different hormones and their roles |
| Diversity of animal life-principles of classification, binomial nomenclature |
| General classification of animal phyla up to classes (invertebrates) and up to sub-classes/ order (vertebrates), general characters of fishes, amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals |
Immunology |
|---|
| Basics of immune mechanisms and diseases-active and passive immunity, T-and B-cell responses, antigen presentation, principles of vaccination, monoclonal antibodies and their uses, immunology of AIDS |
Biology of plant systems |
|---|
| Anatomy and physiology of plants-meristems |
| Plant growth and development |
| Internal and external regulators of growth, and development in plant |
| Plant reproduction |
| Internal structure of root, stem, secondary growth, and leaves |
| Xylem and phloem-their cell elements and functions |
| Internal structure of dicot and monocot leaves |
| Photosynthesis-history, importance, factors, and mechanism, stomatal mechanism, transpiration, and respiration |
| Comparative study of dicot and monocot anatomy |
| Absorption and cell-water relations, transport of water, and minerals, tropic, and turgor movements |
| Significance of life-cycles with special reference to alternation of generations as exemplified in funaria, selaginella, and pinus (no structural details) |
| Plant hormones |
Systematics |
|---|
| Principles of classical and new systematics |
| Binomial nomenclature |
| Familiarity with taxa |
| Plant breeding and tissue culture |
Physical chemistry |
|---|
| Measurements in chemistry: SI units for fundamental quantities, significant figures in calculations |
| Mole concept: Avogadro number and mole concept, molar masses, mole fraction, molarity, molality, percent composition, stoichiometry. Equivalent weight and normality.Calculations based on mole concept and stoichiometry of different reactions |
| Mole concept: Oxidation-reduction reactions |
| Gaseous and liquid states: Absolute scale of temperature. Gas laws, ideal gas equation, real gases and deviation from ideality, liquefaction of gases, Van Der Waals equation |
| Gaseous and liquid states: Kinetic theory of gases; average, root mean square, and most probable velocities and their relation with temperature. Law of partial pressures. Vapour pressure. Diffusion of gases |
| Atomic structure and chemical bonding: Bohr model, spectrum of hydrogen atom, quantum numbers. Wave particle duality, De Broglie hypothesis. Uncertainty principle. Orbitals and quantum numbers; shapes and energy of s, p, and d orbitals |
| Atomic structure and chemical bonding: Electronic configurations of elements (up to atomic number 36), filling of orbitals-Aufbau principle. Pauli’s exclusion principle and Hund’s rule. Hybridization involving s, p, and d orbitals |
| Atomic structure and chemical bonding: Atomic orbital overlap and chemical bonds; ionic, covalent, and coordinate bonds; bond parameters. Orbital energy diagrams for homonuclear diatomic species. Lewis structures. Hydrogen bond |
| Atomic structure and chemical bonding: Polarity in molecules, dipole moment (qualitative aspects). VSEPR theory and shapes of molecules. Valence bond theory. Molecular orbital theory of homonuclear diatomic molecules (qualitative idea) |
| Thermodynamics: Thermodynamic states. First law of thermodynamics. Internal energy, work, and heat, pressure-volume work. Enthalpy and enthalpy change, Hess's law, heat of-reaction, fusion, and vaporisation |
| Thermodynamics: Second law of thermodynamics, entropy, free energy, criterion of spontaneity |
| Chemical equilibrium: Laws of chemical equilibrium, law of mass action. Equilibrium constant-factors affecting equilibrium constant and its applications. Le Chatelier's principle-effect of concentration, temperature, and pressure |
| Chemical equilibrium: Significance of ΔG and ΔG in chemical equilibrium. Relationship of K and ΔG. Ionic equilibrium: Acids and bases (Bronsted and Lewis concepts), salts. Ka, Kb, Kw, degree of dissociation, PH, and their relationships |
| Chemical equilibrium: Ionic equilibrium-solubility product, common ion effect. Hydrolysis of salts. Buffer solutions |
| Electrochemistry: Redox reactions and electrode potential, electrochemical cells, galvanic cells and cell reactions. Standard electrode potential. Nernst equation and its relation to ΔG and K. Electrochemical series, EMF of galvanic cells |
| Electrochemistry: Electrolysis and Faraday's laws of electrolysis. Electrolytic conductance, specific, equivalent, and molar conductivity, Kohlrausch's law. Concentration cells. Batteries (primary and secondary), fuel cells, corrosion |
| Chemical kinetics: Rates of chemical reactions. Order of reaction, rate constant. First order and pseudo first order reactions. Factors affecting rate of reaction-concentration, temperature (Arrhenius equation), catalyst |
| Solid state: Classification of solids, amorphous, and crystalline solids, crystalline state, crystal lattice, and unit cells; seven crystal systems (cell parameters a, b, c, α, β), close packed structure of solids (cubic) |
| Solid state: Packing in fcc, bcc, and hcp lattices. Packing efficiency, nearest neighbours, ionic radii. Simple ionic compounds, imperfection in solids, point defects. Electrical and magnetic properties, band theory of metals |
| Solutions: Solution of solid and gas in liquid. Concentration of solution. Ideal and non-ideal solutions. Colligative properties. Vapour pressure of solution, Raoult's law |
| Solutions: Molecular weight determination from lowering of vapour pressure, elevation of boiling point and depression of freezing point. Abnormal molecular mass, Van't Hoff factor. Osmosis-osmotic pressure, reverse osmosis |
| Surface chemistry: Adsorption-physisorption and chemisorptions. Factors affecting adsorption of gases on solids. Adsorption isotherm. Catalysis-homogeneous and heterogeneous, activity and selectivity. Enzyme catalysis |
| Surface chemistry: Colloidal state-types, preparation, and properties of colloids. Tyndall effect, Brownian movement, electrophoresis, coagulation. Application of colloids. Micelles |
Inorganic chemistry |
|---|
| Classification of elements and periodicity in properties: Modern periodic table, classification of elements, periodic trends in properties of elements-valence, oxidation state, atomic/ ionic radius, ionization energy, electron gain energy |
| Classification of elements and periodicity in properties: Periodic trends in properties of elements-electronegativity, valency, chemical reactivity. Diagonal relationship. Anomalous behaviours of Li, Be, B, C |
| Hydrogen: Isotopes, preparation, isolation, properties, and uses. Hydrides-ionic, covalent, and interstitial. Properties of water and heavy water. Hydrogen peroxide-preparation, structure, reactions, uses. Hydrogen as fuel cell |
| s-block elements (alkali and alkaline earth elements): General characteristics and trends in properties. Group 1: Preparation, properties, and reactions of alkali metals with emphasis on chemistry of Na and K and their compounds-oxides, peroxides |
| s-block elements (alkali and alkaline earth elements): Group 1: Preparation, properties, and reactions of alkali metals with emphasis on chemistry of Na and K and their compounds-hydroxides, carbonates, bicarbonates, chlorides and sulphates |
| s-block elements (alkali and alkaline earth elements): Group 2: Preparation, properties, and reactions alkaline earth metals with emphasis on the chemistry of Mg and Ca and their compounds-oxides, peroxides, hydroxides, carbonates, bicarbonates |
| s-block elements (alkali and alkaline earth elements): Group 2: Preparation, properties, and reactions alkaline earth metals with emphasis on the chemistry of Mg and Ca and their compounds-chlorides and sulphates. Uses |
| p-block elements: General characteristics and trends in properties. Group 13: Chemistry of boron and its compounds-borax, boric acid, and diborane. Group 14, 15, and 16: Chemistry of carbon, sulphur, nitrogen and phosphorus. Allotropy |
| p-block elements: Group 14, 15, and 16-chemistry of carbon, sulphur, nitrogen and phosphorus. Allotropy. Chemistry of oxides and oxyacids of these elements. Phosphines, phosphorus chlorides, ammonia, peroxide, and ozone; silicones |
| p-block elements: Group 14, 15, and 16-silicon tetrachloride and silicates. Group 17: Chemistry of halogens, chemistry of chlorine in detail. Interhalogen compounds. HX and oxyacids of halogens |
| p-block elements: Group 18: Isolation, properties, and reactions of inert gases with emphasis on chemistry of xenon |
| d-block elements: General characteristics and trends in properties (mainly 3d elements).. Variable oxidation states and their stabilities, colour (excluding the details of electronic transitions) and calculation of spin-only magnetic moment |
| d-block elements: Catalytic properties. Interstitial compounds, alloy formation. Preparation and properties of potassium dichromate, and permanganate |
| f-block elements: General characteristics and trends in properties (mainly lanthanides). Variable oxidation states. Lanthanide contraction and its consequences |
| Coordination compounds: Nomenclature of mononuclear coordination compounds. Isomerism. Hybridization and geometries of mononuclear coordination compounds. Magnetic properties. Werner's theory, VBT, CFT |
| Metals and metallurgy: Occurrence of metals. General methods of extraction involving chemical principles-thermodynamic, electrochemical, and redox principles. General operation stages involved in metallurgical operation |
| Metals and metallurgy: Metallurgy of p-block element (emphasis on Al). Metallurgy of Fe-triad (more emphasis on Fe metallurgy). Metallurgy of coinage metals (Cu, Ag with more emphasis on Cu). Refining |
Organic chemistry |
|---|
| Basic concept: Representation of organic compounds. Hybridisations of carbon. Sigma and pi-bonds. Shapes of simple organic molecules. Inductive effect, electrometric effect, resonance effect, hyper conjugation. Keto-enol tautomerism |
| Basic concept: Determination of empirical and molecular formulae (only combustion method). Hydrogen bond-definition and effect on physical properties of alcohols and carboxylic acids. Acidity and basicity of organic acids, and bases |
| Basic concept: Methods of purification of compounds |
| Reactive intermediates: Homolytic and heterolytic bond cleavages. Formation, structure, and stability of-carbocation, carbanion, and free radical |
| Isomerism: Structural and stereoisomerism. Geometrical isomerism. Chirality. Enantiomers. Optical isomerism of compounds containing up to two asymmetric centres, (R, S and E, Z nomenclature excluded). Racemic mixture |
| Isomerism: Conformations of ethane and butane (Newman projections) |
| Nomenclature: IUPAC nomenclature of simple organic compounds (only hydrocarbons, monofunctional and bifunctional compounds), including benzene derivatives |
| Alkanes: Preparation, properties, and reactions. Idea of homologous series, combustion, and halogenation of alkanes. Mechanism of photohalogenation, Wurtz reaction |
| Alkenes and alkynes: Preparation, properties, and reactions of alkenes and alkynes. Isomerization. Acidity of alkynes. Acid catalysed hydration of alkenes and alkynes (excluding the stereochemistry), reactions of alkenes with KMnO₄, sulphuric acid |
| Alkenes and alkynes: Reduction of alkenes and alkynes, preparation of alkenes and alkynes by elimination reactions (excluding stereochemistry). Electrophilic addition reactions of alkenes with X2, HX, HOX, and H2O (X=halogen). Makowniko rule |
| Alkenes and alkynes: Peroxide effect. Polymerization of alkenes, addition reactions of alkynes, metal acetylides, ozonolysis |
| Aromatic compounds: Aromaticity. Huckel theory of aromaticity. Structure of benzene. Isomerism in substituted benzenes. Electrophilic substitution reaction on benzene-general mechanism |
| Aromatic compounds: Orientating influence of substituents in electrophilic substitution reaction of monosubstituted benzenes. Electrophilic substitution reactions of benzene and substituted benzenes-halogenation, nitration, sulphonation |
| Aromatic compounds: Friedel-Crafts alkylation and acylation (no mechanism) |
| Haloalkanes (alkyl halides): Preparation from alkanes, alcohols, olens. Grignard reagents and their reaction with aldehydes/ ketones/ esters/ nitriles. Nucleophilic substitution reactions of alkyl halides with different nucleophilic species |
| Haloalkanes (alkyl halides): SN1 and SN2 reactions with mechanism. Halogen exchange reaction. Polyhalogen compounds |
| Haloarenes: nucleophilic aromatic substitution in haloarenes and substituted haloarenes (excluding Benzyne mechanism and Cine substitution) |
| Alcohols: Preparation from-olens, alkyl halides, carboxylic acids, aldehydes/ ketones. Hydroboration reaction. Dehydration, oxidation to aldehydes and ketones. Reaction with sodium, phosphorus halides, ZnCl₂/ HX, H₂SO₄ |
| Alcohols: Identification of p-, sec-,and tert-alcohols. Uses of methanol and ethanol |
| Phenols: Preparation of phenol from halobenzene, cumene, and benzene sulphonic acid. Acidity. Reactions of phenols-halogenation, nitration, sulphonation, with Zn. Reimer-Tiemann reaction, Kolbe reaction |
| Ethers: Preparation by Williamson's Synthesis, dehydration of alcohols. Reaction with H2O, HX |
| Aldehydes and Ketones: Preparation of aldehydes and ketones from-alcohols, olefins, acid chlorides, aryl alkanes, nitriles, esters, Friedel-Crafts reaction. Reactions with-alcohols, HCN, NaHSO3 |
| Aldehydes and Ketones: Reactions-oxidation, reduction, oxime, and hydrazone formation. Aldol condensation, Perkin reaction. Cannizzaro reaction. Haloform reaction. Tests to distinguish aldehydes and ketones |
| Carboxylic acids: Acidity and structure, acidity relationship. Preparation of acids. Preparation of amides, acid chlorides, esters, and anhydrides. Ester hydrolysis |
| Carboxylic acids: Reactions of acids with-thionyl chloride, P-halides, ammonia, alkalis, metals, halogens, reducing agents. Decarboxylation. Halogenation |
| Amines: Basicity and structure, basicity relationship. Identification of p-, sec-, and tert–amines. Preparation of amines from-nitro compounds, nitriles, amides, haloalkanes/ aromatic compounds |
| Amines: Reaction with-acids, alkylating agents, acylating agents, nitrous acid. Diazotization of aromatic primary amines-reactions of aromatic diazonium salts-azo coupling reaction, Sandmeyer, and related reactions. Carbylamine reaction of p-amines |
| Carbohydrate: Classification of carbohydrates. Mono-and disaccharides (glucose and sucrose). Characteristic tests. Structure of glucose. Reactions of glucose-oxidation, reduction, hydroxylamine, HI, acetic anhydride. Cyclic structure of glucose |
| Carbohydrate: Structures of-sucrose, maltose, starch, and cellulose. Glycoside formation and hydrolysis of sucrose |
| Amino acids and proteins: α-amino acids. General structure of peptides and proteins. Peptide bond. Characteristic tests. Separation of amino acids using physical properties. Denaturation of proteins. Enzymes |
| Polymers: Classification. Homo and copolymers, addition, and condensation polymerizations. Polythene, nylons, polyesters, bakelite, melamine-formaldehyde, rubber-natural and synthetic |
Algebra |
|---|
| Algebra of complex numbers, addition, multiplication, conjugation, polar representation, properties of modulus and principal argument, triangle inequality, cube roots of unity, geometric interpretations |
| Quadratic equations with real coefficients, relations between roots and coefficients, formation of quadratic equations with given roots, symmetric functions of roots |
| Arithmetic, geometric, and harmonic progressions, arithmetic, geometric and harmonic means, sums of finite arithmetic and geometric progressions, infinite geometric series, sums of squares and cubes of the first n natural numbers |
| Logarithms and their properties |
| Permutations and combinations, binomial theorem for positive integral index, properties of binomial coefficients |
| Matrices as a rectangular array of real numbers, equality of matrices, addition, multiplication by a scalar and product of matrices, transpose of a matrix, determinant of a square matrix of order up to three |
| Inverse of a square matrix of order up to three, properties of these matrix operations, diagonal, symmetric and skew-symmetric matrices and their properties, solutions of simultaneous linear equations in two or three variables |
| Addition and multiplication rules of probability, conditional probability, Bayes theorem, independence of events, computation of probability of events using permutations and combinations |
Trigonometry |
|---|
| Trigonometric functions, their periodicity and graphs, addition, and subtraction formulae, formulae involving multiple and sub-multiple angles, general solution of trigonometric equations |
| Relations between sides and angles of a triangle, sine rule, cosine rule, half-angle formula and the area of a triangle, inverse trigonometric functions (principal value only) |
Analytical geometry |
|---|
| Two dimensions-Cartesian coordinates, distance between two points, section formulae, shift of origin |
| Equation of a straight line in various forms, angle between two lines, distance of a point from a line |
| Lines through the point of intersection of two given lines, equation of the bisector of the angle between two lines, concurrency of lines |
| Centroid, orthocentre, incentre, and circumcentre of a triangle |
| Equation of a circle in various forms, equations of tangent, normal, and chord |
| Parametric equations of a circle, intersection of a circle with a straight line or a circle, equation of a circle through the points of intersection of two circles and those of a circle and a straight line |
| Equations of a parabola, ellipse, and hyperbola in standard form, their foci, directrices and eccentricity, parametric equations, equations of tangent, and normal |
| Locus problems |
| Three dimensions-direction cosines and direction ratios, equation of a straight line in space, equation of a plane, distance of a point from a plane |
Differential calculus |
|---|
| Real valued functions of a real variable, into, onto, and one-to-one functions, sum, difference, product, and quotient of two functions, composite functions, absolute value, polynomial, rational, trigonometric, exponential and logarithmic functions |
| Limit and continuity of a function, limit, and continuity of the sum, difference, product, and quotient of two functions, L'hospital rule for evaluation of limits of functions |
| Even and odd functions, inverse of a function, continuity of composite functions, intermediate value property of continuous functions |
| Derivative of a function, derivative of the sum, difference, product, and quotient of two functions, chain rule, derivatives of polynomial, rational, trigonometric, inverse trigonometric, exponential and logarithmic functions |
| Derivatives of implicit functions, derivatives up to order two, geometrical interpretation of the derivative, tangents and normals, increasing and decreasing functions, maximum and minimum values of a function |
| Rolle's theorem and Lagrange's mean value theorem |
Integral calculus |
|---|
| Integration as the inverse process of differentiation, indefinite integrals of standard functions, definite integrals and their properties, fundamental theorem of integral calculus |
| Integration by parts, integration by the methods of substitution and partial fractions, application of definite integrals to the determination of areas involving simple curves |
| Formation of ordinary differential equations, Solution of homogeneous differential equations, Separation of variables method, Linear first order differential equations |
Vectors |
|---|
| Addition of vectors, scalar multiplication, dot, and cross products, scalar triple products and their geometrical interpretations |
General |
|---|
| Units and dimensions, dimensional analysis, least count, significant figures |
| Methods of measurement (direct, indirect, null) and measurement of length, time, mass, temperature, potential difference, current and resistance |
| Design of some simple experiments, such as: i) Searle's method to determine Young's modulus, ii) determination of 'g' by simple pendulum, iii) speed of sound using resonance tube, iv) coefficient of friction using angle of repose |
| Design of some simple experiments, such as: v) Determination of focal length of a convex lens by plotting a graph between 'u' and 'v', vi) refractive index of material of prism using the method of minimum deviation, vii) verification of Ohm's law |
| Design of some simple experiments, such as: viii) Resistance of galvanometer using half deflection method, ix) specific heat of a liquid using calorimeter, x) I-V characteristic curve for p–n junction in forward and reverse bias |
| Graphical representation and interpretation of data |
| Errors in the measurements and error analysis |
Mechanics |
|---|
| Kinematics in one and two dimensions (Cartesian coordinates only), projectiles |
| Uniform circular motion |
| Relative velocity |
| Newton's laws of motion |
| Inertial and uniformly accelerated (linear only) frames of reference |
| Static and dynamic friction |
| Kinetic and potential energy |
| Linear and circular simple harmonic motion |
| Work and power |
| Conservation of linear momentum and mechanical energy |
| Systems of particles |
| Centre of mass and its motion |
| Centre of gravity |
| Impulse |
| Elastic and inelastic collisions |
| Law of gravitation |
| Centripetal acceleration and centrifugal force |
| Gravitational potential and field |
| Acceleration due to gravity |
| Motion of planets and satellites in circular orbits |
| Escape velocity |
| Rigid body, moment of inertia, parallel and perpendicular axes theorems, moment of inertia of uniform bodies with simple geometrical shapes |
| Angular momentum, torque |
| Conservation of angular momentum |
| Dynamics of rigid bodies with fixed axis of rotation |
| Rolling without slipping of rings, cylinders, and spheres |
| Equilibrium of rigid bodies |
| Collision of point masses with rigid bodies |
| Hooke's law and stress-strain relations |
| Elastic limit, plastic deformation |
| Young's modulus, bulk, and shear moduli |
| Pressure in a fluid |
| Pascal's law |
| Buoyancy |
| Surface energy and surface tension, capillary rise |
| Viscosity-Stoke's and Poiseuille's law, terminal velocity |
| Qualitative understanding of turbulence |
| Reynolds number |
| Streamline flow, equation of continuity |
| Bernoulli's theorem |
Sound and mechanical waves |
|---|
| Plane wave motion, longitudinal, and transverse waves, superposition of waves |
| Progressive and stationary waves |
| Vibration of strings and air columns |
| Resonance (qualitative understanding) |
| Beats |
| Speed of sound in gases |
| Doppler effect |
Thermal physics |
|---|
| Thermal expansion of solids, liquids, and gases |
| Calorimetry, latent heat |
| Heat conduction in one dimension |
| Elementary concepts of convection and radiation |
| Newton's law of cooling |
| Ideal gas laws |
| Specific heats (Cv and Cp for monatomic, and diatomic gases) |
| Isothermal and adiabatic processes, bulk modulus of gases |
| Equivalence of heat and work |
| First and second law of thermodynamics and its applications (only for ideal gases) |
| Entropy |
| Blackbody radiation-absorptive and emissive powers |
| Kirchhoff's law |
| Wien's displacement law, Stefan's law |
Electricity and magnetism |
|---|
| Coulomb's law |
| Electric field and potential |
| Electrical potential energy of a system of point charges and of electrical dipoles in a uniform electrostatic field; electric field lines |
| Flux of electric field |
| Gauss's law and its application in simple cases, such as to find field due to infinitely long straight wire |
| Uniformly charged infinite plane sheet and uniformly charged thin spherical shell |
Capacitance |
|---|
| Calculation of capacitance with and without dielectrics |
| Capacitors in series and parallel |
| Energy stored in a capacitor |
| Electric current |
| Ohm's law |
| Series and parallel arrangements of resistances, and cells |
| Kirchhoff's laws and simple applications; heating effect of current |
| Biot-savart's law and Ampere's law |
| Magnetic field near a current carrying straight wire, along the axis of a circular coil and inside a long straight solenoid |
| Force on a moving charge and on a current carrying wire in a uniform magnetic field |
| Magnetic moment of a current loop |
| Effect of a uniform magnetic field on a current loop |
| Moving coil galvanometer, voltmeter, ammeter, and their conversions |
Electromagnetic induction |
|---|
| Faraday's law, Lenz's law |
| Self and mutual inductance |
| RC, LR, and LC circuits with AC sources |
Optics |
|---|
| Rectilinear propagation of light |
| Reflection and refraction at plane, and spherical surfaces, deviation and dispersion of light by a prism |
| Thin lenses |
| Combination of mirrors and thin lenses |
| Magnification |
| Wave nature of light-Huygens principle, interference limited to Young's double slit experiment |
| Elementary idea of diffraction-Rayleigh criterion |
| Elementary idea of polarization-Brewster's law and the law of Malus |
Modern physics |
|---|
| Atomic nucleus |
| Alpha, beta, and gamma radiations |
| Law of radioactive decay |
| Decay constant |
| Half-life and mean life |
| Binding energy and its calculation |
| Fission and fusion processes |
| Energy calculation in these processes |
| Photoelectric effect |
| Bohr's theory of hydrogen like atoms |
| Characteristic and continuous x-rays, Moseley's law |
| De Broglie wavelength of matter waves |
| Heisenberg's uncertainty principle |
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According to the official exam pattern for NEST 2024, the question paper will be created based on the science stream syllabus of Class 11 and 12 of NCERT/CBSE. For successful preparation, it is suggested that aspirants study from the CBSE/NCERT syllabus along with taking mock tests and referring to the previous year question papers of the NEST, which can be found on the official NEST exam website.
Go through the whole syllabus and the exam pattern of the NEST 2024
Do regular practice exams.
Create your study format and stick to it religiously.
Try to avoid last minutes preparations.
Work through the previous year’s questions and sample papers.
Stay focused on your studies by avoiding all the distractions.
To help students get a hang of the computer-based examination, various video tutorials and practice sessions will also be organised for candidates who have filled and submitted the NEST application form 2024, which will be accessible for these candidates through their NEST accounts.
The National Institute of Science Education and Research (NISER) sets the NEST exam pattern every year, and all the details can be found on the official website. In 2024, the NEST entrance exam will be held in approximately ninety exam centers. It is important that candidates go through the NEST exam pattern 2024 to gain an understanding of the question paper's structure and format. The NEST exam pattern consists of various important details about the entrance exam such as its duration, mode, number of sections, medium, total marks, and marking scheme.
The NEST 2024 question paper consists of four sections, four subject sections with single or multiple MCQ-type questions. According to the NEST exam pattern, candidates can attempt as many subject sections as they desire (beyond the compulsory three). To determine the final result of NEST 2024, the best of the three subject sections scores and general section scores are taken into account. Therefore, it is highly recommended that candidates check the NEST exam pattern 2024 to gain a better understanding of the question paper.
| Particulars | Details |
| Exam duration | 3.5 hours |
| Type of questions | Multiple type questions |
| No. of sections | 4 |
| Total marks | 150 |
| Marking scheme | 1/4 marks for every incorrect responses |
| Section | Number of MCQ |
| Biology* | 50 (Single or multiple correct answers) |
| Chemistry* | 50 (Single or multiple correct answers) |
| Physics* | 50 (Single or multiple correct answers) |
| Mathematics* | 50 (Single or multiple correct answers) |
Note: At least three of these subject sections need to be attempted.
Candidates must go through the NEST 2024 mock tests to perform well in the NEST exam 2024. Students can appear for the mock tests for free by visiting the official website. The NEST mock tests will help the candidates to understand the exam pattern and the types of questions asked in the examination. NEST mock tests will be available for free on the official website and will help the candidates to understand the exam pattern and the types of questions asked in the examination. The NEST mock tests will provide the candidates with a real-time experience of the exam and help them familiarise themselves with the exam. Additionally, the candidates can analyse their performance and identify the areas where they need to focus more on. Taking NEST mock tests is essential for the candidates to understand the exam pattern, familiarise themselves with the type of questions and the marking scheme.
NISER Bhubaneswar, in collaboration with UM DAE CEBS has issued the NEST 2024 admit card on June 20, in online mode at the official website of NEST - nestexam.in. All those candidates who have submitted the NEST 2024 application form can download their admit card by using their login credentials. It is important for the candidates to carry the NEST admit card 2024, along with valid ID proofs, to the exam center as it is a mandatory document. Candidates must check the details mentioned on the NEST hall ticket carefully to make sure that all the information is correct. The NEST admit card 2024 will comprise of the candidate's roll number, allotted exam center and reporting time. It must be noted that the varsity will not send the NEST admit card 2024 via post or courier. To avoid any issues, candidates must make multiple copies of the NEST admit card 2024.
| State | City |
|---|---|
| Andhra Pradesh | Guntur |
| Kakinada | |
| Kurnool | |
| Nellore | |
| Rajahmundry | |
| Tirupati | |
| Vijayawada | |
| Visakhapatnam | |
| Vizianagaram | |
| Assam | Guwahati |
| Bihar | Patna |
| Chandigarh | Chandigarh |
| Chhattisgarh | Bhilai |
| Raipur | |
| Delhi | New Delhi |
| Uttar Pradesh | Noida |
| Allahabad | |
| Kanpur | |
| Lucknow | |
| Varanasi | |
| Gujarat | Ahmedabad |
| Himachal Pradesh | Hamirpur |
| Shimla | |
| Jammu and Kashmir | Jammu |
| Samba | |
| Srinagar | |
| Jharkhand | Bokaro |
| Dhanbad | |
| Jamshedpur | |
| Ranchi | |
| Karnataka | Bangalore |
| Hubballi | |
| Mangalore | |
| Mysore | |
| Kerala | Alappuzha |
| Ernakulam | |
| Idukki | |
| Kannur | |
| Kasaragod | |
| Kollam | |
| Kottayam | |
| Kozhikode | |
| Malappuram | |
| Palakkad | |
| Pathanamthitta | |
| Thiruvananthapuram | |
| Thrissur | |
| Madhya Pradesh | Bhopal |
| Gwalior | |
| Indore | |
| Jabalpur | |
| Maharashtra | Mumbai |
| Nagpur | |
| Pune | |
| Manipur | Imphal |
| Meghalaya | Shillong |
| Odisha | Angul |
| Balasore | |
| Bargarh | |
| Baripada | |
| Berhampur | |
| Bhubaneswar | |
| Cuttack | |
| Dhenkanal | |
| Jharsuguda | |
| Khurda | |
| Rayagada | |
| Rourkela | |
| Sambalpur | |
| Punjab | Bathinda |
| Jalandhar | |
| Mohali | |
| Rajasthan | Jaipur |
| Udaipur | |
| Jodhpur | |
| Tamil Nadu | Chennai |
| Coimbatore | |
| Madurai | |
| Salem | |
| Tiruchirappalli | |
| Tirunelveli | |
| Telangana | Hyderabad |
| Karimnagar | |
| Warangal | |
| Tripura | Agartala |
| Uttarakhand | Dehradun |
| Haldwani | |
| Roorkee | |
| West Bengal | Asansol |
| Burdwan | |
| Durgapur | |
| Hooghly | |
| Kolkata | |
| Siliguri |
The NEST 2024 exam will be held in around 122 test centres across India. Candidates can check the table to know about their desired NEST 2024 test centres.
No. | Centre | No. | Centre | No. | Centre | No. | Centre |
01 | Port Blair[AN] | 32 | Jamshedpur [JH] | 63 | Ratnagiri [MH] | 94 | Chennai [TN] |
02 | Guntur [AP] | 33 | Ranchi [JH] | 64 | Solapur [MH] | 95 | Coimbatore [TN] |
03 | Kurnool [AP] | 34 | Bengaluru [KA] | 65 | Shillong [ML] | 96 | Madurai [TN] |
04 | Rajahmundry [AP] | 35 | Hubballi (Hubli) [KA] | 66 | Imphal [MN] | 97 | Salem [TN] |
05 | Tirupathi [AP] | 36 | Mangaluru(Mangalore) [KA] | 67 | Aizawl [MZ] | 98 | Tiruchirappalli [TN] |
06 | Vijayawada [AP] | 37 | Mysuru (Mysore) [KA] | 68 | Dimapur [NL] | 99 | Tirunelveli [TN] |
07 | Visakhapatnam [AP] | 38 | Alappuzha [KL] | 69 | Kohima [NL] | 100 | Hyderabad [TS] |
08 | Vizianagaram [AP] | 39 | Ernakulam [KL] | 70 | Angul [OD] | 101 | Karimnagar [TS] |
09 | Naharlagun-Itanagar [AR] | 40 | Idukki [KL] | 71 | Balangir [OD] | 102 | Warangal [TS] |
10 | Dibrugarh [AS] | 41 | Kannur [KL] | 72 | Balasore [OD] | 103 | Agartala [TR] |
11 | Guwahati [AS] | 42 | Kasaragod [KL] | 73 | Bargarh [OD] | 104 | Agra [UP] |
12 | Tezpur [AS] | 43 | Kollam [KL] | 74 | Baripada [OD] | 105 | Aligarh [UP] |
13 | Bhagalpur [BR] | 44 | Kottayam [KL] | 75 | Berhampur-Ganjam [OD] | 106 | Gorakhpur [UP] |
14 | Patna [BR] | 45 | Kozhikode [KL] | 76 | Bhawanipatna [OD] | 107 | Kanpur [UP] |
15 | Bhilai Nagar [CG] | 46 | Malappuram [KL] | 77 | Bhubaneswar [OD] | 108 | Lucknow [UP] |
16 | Raipur [CG] | 47 | Palakkad [KL] | 78 | Cuttack [OD] | 109 | Noida [UP] |
17 | New Delhi [DL] | 48 | Pathanamthitta [KL] | 79 | Dhenkanal [OD] | 110 | Prayagraj (Allahabad) [UP] |
18 | Panaji [GA] | 49 | Thiruvananthapuram[KL] | 80 | Jharsuguda [OD] | 111 | Varanasi [UP] |
19 | Ahmedabad [GJ] | 50 | Thrissur [KL] | 81 | Rayagada [OD] | 112 | Dehradun [UK] |
20 | Bhuj [GJ] | 51 | Leh [LA] | 82 | Rourkela [OD] | 113 | Haldwani [UK] |
21 | Rajkot [GJ] | 52 | Bhopal [MP] | 83 | Sambalpur [OD] | 114 | Roorkee [UK] |
22 | Surat [GJ] | 53 | Gwalior [MP] | 84 | Bhatinda [PB] | 115 | Asansol [WB] |
23 | Bilaspur [HP] | 54 | Indore [MP] | 85 | Jalandhar [PB] | 116 | Berhampur [WB] |
24 | Hamirpur [HP] | 55 | Jabalpur [MP] | 86 | Mohali [PB] | 117 | Burdwan [WB] |
25 | Mandi [HP] | 56 | Aurangabad [MH] | 87 | Puducherry [PY] | 118 | Durgapur [WB] |
26 | Hisar [HR] | 57 | Jalgaon [MH] | 88 | Bikaner [RJ] | 119 | Hooghly[WB] |
27 | Ambal [HR] | 58 | Kolhapur [MH] | 89 | Jaipur [RJ] | 120 | Kalyani [WB] |
28 | Jammu [JK] | 59 | Mumbai [MH] | 90 | Jodhpur [RJ] | 121 | Kolkata [WB] |
29 | Srinagar [JK] | 60 | Nagpur [MH] | 91 | Kota [RJ] | 122 | Siliguri[WB] |
30 | Bokaro Steel City [JH] | 61 | Nanded [MH] | 92 | Udaipur [RJ] | -- | -- |
31 | Dhanbad [JH] | 62 | Pune [MH] | 93 | Gangtak [SK] | -- | -- |
NISER Bhubaneswar will release the NEST 2024 answer key on their official website. Additionally, the candidates will be provided with the answer scripts and the answer key challenge window. Candidates can raise objections against the NEST 2024 answer key in case of discrepancies. Candidates should cross-check their answers with the provided NEST exam answer key. The deadline to challenge the NEST 2024 answer key is also mentioned on its official website. If the objections raised by candidates are found to be valid, the conducting bodies will release the final answer key of NEST. The NEST answer key contains the answers to all the questions asked in the entrance exam. Candidates who have appeared for the exam can check the NEST answer key 2024 to calculate their probable marks.
The NEST 2024 exam result will be declared on July 10 on the official website in an online format. To access their results, candidates must log in to the official website using their valid user ID and password. After viewing their results, candidates can download their NEST scorecard 2024, which will include details such as their name and photograph, roll number, category, category rank, merit rank, percentile, marks attained, and percentile. The NEST result 2024 will be determined based on the marks obtained by candidates in the entrance exam.
The NEST 2024 cutoff will be determined by NISER and UM-DAE CEBS and released online. The NEST 2024 cutoff will be based on the marks obtained by candidates in each section of the exam and overall. Candidates who score equal to or more than the NEST cutoff will be invited to the counselling process. If a candidate does not meet the minimum score in the NEST cutoff, their application for admission will be rejected.
Mode of Counselling: Online, Offline
Candidates who have successfully qualified the National Entrance Screening Test (NEST) 2024 for admission to five year Integrated MSc programme in Biology, Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics at NISER and UM-DAE-CBS must attend the online counselling session in order to secure a seat in their desired programme. The NEST counselling process will be based on the rankings and performances of the candidates in the entrance test. It is mandatory for all eligible candidates to present the necessary verified documents while attending the NEST counselling 2024.
| Validity of Exam Result: | For 1 Year |
| Mode of Exam: | Online |
| Contacts: | 06742494360 |
| Relevant Links: | Official Website Link Click Here |
| +2 More |
Answer:
The NISER Bhubaneswar, in collaboration with UM DAE CEBS has released the NEST 2024 admit card on June 21 at nestexam.in.
Answer:
The NEST entrance exam 2024 will be conducted on June 30, in two sessions.
Answer:
Candidates qualified in Class 12 can be eligible to apply for admissions in NEST 2024 exam.
Answer:
NEST entrance exam will be conducted for courses like Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology.
Answer:
The NEST exam is not especially difficult. The most difficult section was Physics, followed by Mathematics. Biology and Chemistry are the easier subjects.
Answer:
Candidates can score more marks in NEST by making a timetable to prepare prior to the exam and score more marks by practicing the important topics.
Answer:
Candidates qualified in NEST 2024 can gain academic excellence and research output.
Answer:
The NEST exam 2024 will be held on June 30, to offer admissions for admissions in the Integrated MSc program at NISER, Bhubaneswar, and UM-DAE CEBS, Mumbai. The level of the NEST 2024 exam is considered to be moderate to difficult.
Answer:
To prepare for NEST, candidates can refer to the official study material, practice sample papers, and previous year question papers.
Answer:
Any electronic device like phones, watches, speakers etc. will be prohibited in the NEST examination centre.
Answer:
The application fee for NEST will be Rs. 1400/- for General/OBC category candidates and Rs. 700/- for SC/ST/PwD category candidates.
Answer:
The NEST 2024 result will be declared on July 10, on the official website at nestexam.in.
Answer:
Candidates could apply for the NEST exam through the official website of NISER. The NEST 2024 application process was started on April 3 and closed on June 3, at the official website.
Answer:
NEST exam 2024 is conducted by NISER Bhubaneswar and UM - DAE CEBS Mumbai to offer admissions.
Answer:
National Entrance Screening Test will be conducted jointly by the National Institute of Science Education and Research (NISER) Bhubaneswar, and Mumbai University - Department of Atomic Energy Centre for Excellence in Basic Sciences (UM - DAE CEBS).
Answer:
NEST exam will be held once in a year to offer admissions in NISER Bhubaneswar and UM-DAE CEBS Mumbai.
Answer:
Candidates can appear for the NEST exam as many times as possible. There is no limit for number of attempts.
Answer:
The NEST exam consists of five sections – Biology, Chemistry, Mathematics, Physics and Logical & Quantitative Reasoning. Each section comprises 60 multiple-choice questions and the total duration of the exam is 3 hours.
No, qualifying NEST exam won't directly lead you to pursue MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery). NEST serves a different purpose.
The National Entrance Screening Test is for admission to five-year integrated M.Sc. programs at specific universities like National Institute of Science Education and Research (NISER) and Center for Excellence in Basic Sciences (UM-DAE CEBS). It focuses on Science subjects (Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics, and Biology).
To pursue MBBS, you need to qualify for a separate medical entrance exam like the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET). NEET is the primary gateway for admission to undergraduate medical programs in India.
https://medicine.careers360.com/download/ebooks/neet-pg-quick-guide-exam-admission-seats-fees-and-more
I hopeit helps!
Question : Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
The Black Drongo also known as the King Crow, is a small Asian bird of the drongo family. Previously, it was seen as a subspecies of the African Fork-tailed Drongo but is now recognized as a full species. It is a common resident breeder in much of tropical southern Asia from southwest Iran through India and Sri Lanka to southern China and Indonesia. It is a wholly black bird with a distinctive forked tail and measures 28 cm in length.
Feeding on insects, it is commonly found in open agricultural areas and light forest areas throughout its range, perching conspicuously on a bare perch or along power or telephone lines.
The species is famous for its aggressive behaviour towards much larger birds, such as crows, and never hesitates to dive-bomb any birds of prey that invade its territory. Smaller birds often nest in the well-guarded vicinity of a nesting Black Drongo
The Black Drongo has been introduced to some Pacific islands, where it has thrived and become abundant to the point of threatening and causing the extinction of native and endemic bird species there.
Drongos fly with strong flaps of the wing and are capable of fast manoeuvres that enable them to capture flying insects. With short legs, they sit upright on thorny bushes, bare perches or electricity wires. They may also perch on grazing animals.
The Black Drongo is found predominantly in open country and usually perches and hunts close to the ground. They are mostly aerial predators of insects but also glean from the ground or off vegetation.
They are found as summer visitors to northeastern Afghanistan and northern Pakistan but are mainly resident south from the Indus Valley up to Bangladesh and into India and Sri Lanka.
Question:
Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
Option 1: The drongo looks exactly like a crow.
Option 2: Smaller birds are protected by the drongo.
Option 3: This bird is a native of tropical countries in south-Asia.
Option 4: The drongo is a small perching bird.
Correct Answer: The drongo looks exactly like a crow.
Solution : The first option is the correct choice.
The statement "the drongo looks exactly like a crow" is not true, according to the passage.
The passage describes the Black Drongo as a wholly black bird with a distinctive forked tail, measuring 28 cm in length. While it mentions that the Black Drongo is sometimes known as the King Crow, this is likely due to its aggressive behaviour towards larger birds, such as crows, and not because it looks exactly like a crow.
Question : Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
The Black Drongo also known as the King Crow, is a small Asian bird of the drongo family. Previously, it was seen as a subspecies of the African Fork-tailed Drongo but is now recognised as a full species. It is a common resident breeder in much of tropical southern Asia from southwest Iran through India and Sri Lanka to southern China and Indonesia. It is a wholly black bird with a distinctive forked tail and measures 28 cm in length.
Feeding on insects, it is commonly found in open agricultural areas and light forest areas throughout its range, perching conspicuously on a bare perch or along power or telephone lines.
The species is famous for its aggressive behaviour towards much larger birds, such as crows, and never hesitates to dive-bomb any birds of prey that invade its territory. Smaller birds often nest in the well-guarded vicinity of a nesting Black Drongo.
The Black Drongo has been introduced to some Pacific islands, where it has thrived and become abundant to the point of threatening and causing the extinction of native and endemic bird species there.
Drongos fly with strong flaps of the wing and are capable of fast manoeuvres that enable them to capture flying insects. With short legs, they sit upright on thorny bushes, bare perches or electricity wires. They may also perch on grazing animals.
The Black Drongo is found predominantly in open country and usually perches and hunts close to the ground. They are mostly aerial predators of insects but also glean from the ground or off vegetation.
They are found as summer visitors to northeastern Afghanistan and northern Pakistan but are mainly resident south from the Indus Valley up to Bangladesh and into India and Sri Lanka.
Question:
What was the impact of trying to introduce the species to the Pacific islands?
Option 1: They decreased in numbers drastically.
Option 2: They returned to the lands of their origin.
Option 3: They proved to be a threat to the local birds.
Option 4: They did not survive in the changed climate conditions.
Correct Answer: They proved to be a threat to the local birds.
Solution : The third option is the correct choice.
The impact of introducing the Black Drongo species to some Pacific islands was that they thrived and became abundant to the point of threatening and causing the extinction of native and endemic bird species there.
The passage states that the Black Drongo has been introduced to these islands, and as a result of its successful establishment and proliferation, it poses a threat to the local bird species.
Question : Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
The Black Drongo also known as the King Crow, is a small Asian bird of the drongo family. Previously, it was seen as a subspecies of the African Fork-tailed Drongo but is now recognised as a full species. It is a common resident breeder in much of tropical southern Asia, from southwest Iran through India and Sri Lanka to southern China and Indonesia. It is a wholly black bird with a distinctive forked tail and measures 28 cm in length.
Feeding on insects, it is commonly found in open agricultural areas and light forest areas throughout its range, perching conspicuously on a bare perch or along power or telephone lines.
The species is famous for its aggressive behaviour towards much larger birds, such as crows, and never hesitates to dive-bomb any birds of prey that invade its territory. Smaller birds often nest in the well-guarded vicinity of a nesting Black Drongo.
The Black Drongo has been introduced to some Pacific islands, where it has thrived and become abundant to the point of threatening and causing the extinction of native and endemic bird species there.
Drongos fly with strong flaps of the wing and are capable of fast manoeuvres that enable them to capture flying insects. With short legs, they sit upright on thorny bushes, bare perches or electricity wires. They may also perch on grazing animals.
The Black Drongo is found predominantly in open country and usually perches and hunts close to the ground. They are mostly aerial predators of insects but also glean from the ground or off vegetation.
They are found as summer visitors to northeastern Afghanistan and northern Pakistan but are mainly resident south from the Indus Valley up to Bangladesh and into India and Sri Lanka.
Question:
Which one of the following statements made about the Drongo in the passage will NOT help us to identify the bird?
Option 1: It is completely black.
Option 2: It is recognised as a full species.
Option 3: It hunts close to the ground.
Option 4: It has a forked tail.
Correct Answer: It is recognised as a full species.
Solution : The second option is the correct choice.
The statement "It is recognised as a full species" will not help us identify the bird.
The reason is that recognising the Black Drongo as a full species provides information about its taxonomic classification. it does not provide distinctive visual or behavioural characteristics that would aid in the identification of the bird. Identifying a bird typically involves features such as physical appearance, colouration, size, behaviour, or other specific traits.
Question : Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
A mare’s nest.
Option 1: Deep crisis.
Option 2: Simple and interesting work.
Option 3: Complicated situation.
Option 4: Area of law.
Correct Answer: Complicated situation.
Solution : The correct choice is the third option .
The idiom a mare's nest typically refers to a situation or discovery that initially appears promising or exciting but ultimately turns out to be illusory, non-existent, or more complicated than originally thought. It signifies a false or misleading discovery that appears significant but is, in reality, meaningless or without substance.
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